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Elodia [21]
3 years ago
5

In a certain​ country, the true probability of a baby being a boy is 0.518. Among the next four randomly selected births in the​

country, what is the probability that at least one of them is a girl​? ​(Round to three decimal places as​ needed.)
Mathematics
1 answer:
Valentin [98]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

0.928 = 92.8% probability that at least one of them is a girl

Step-by-step explanation:

For each baby, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are boys, or they are not. The probabilities of each baby being a boy is independent from other babies. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this problem.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

In a certain​ country, the true probability of a baby being a boy is 0.518. So p = 0.518

Among the next four randomly selected births in the​ country, what is the probability that at least one of them is a girl​?

Either all four babies are boys, or at least one is girl. The sum of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 4) + P(X < 4) = 1

We want to find P(X < 4) when n = 4. So

P(X < 4) = 1 - P(X = 4)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.518)^{4}.(0.482)^{0} = 0.072

P(X < 4) = 1 - P(X = 4) = 1 - 0.072 = 0.928

0.928 = 92.8% probability that at least one of them is a girl

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Answer: -216

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve the exercise you must use the formula shown below:

Sn=\frac{(a_1+a_n)n}{2}

Where:

a_1=152\\a_n=a_{24}

You should find  a_{24}

The formula to find it is:

a_n=a_1+(n-1)d

Where d is the difference between two consecutive terms.

d=138-152=-14

Then:

a_{24}=152+(24-1)(14)=-170

Substitute it into the first formula. Therefore, you obtain:

S_{24}=\frac{(152-170)(24)}{2}=-216

3 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

‘a’ in this question is the slope of the line. Slope is (y2-y1)/(x2-x1) for any two points. We can see the line intersects the point (0,0) and (-10/9) so the slope is -10/9 which is less than -1 so

a<-1

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Find a point-slope form for the line with slope 1/5 and passing through the point (-4,-9).
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Answer:

y + 9 = \frac{1}{5}(x + 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in point- slope form is

y - b = m(x - a)

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Here m = \frac{1}{5} and (a, b) = (- 4, - 9) , thus

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Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

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This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

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P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

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And since there are 17 girls
We get, the ratio of the part-to-whole relationship for girls is 17/31.
7 0
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