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Lelechka [254]
3 years ago
8

A groundwater treatment system is needed to remediate a solvent-contaminated aquifer. The system costs $2,500,000. It is expecte

d to operate a total of 130,000 hours over a period of 10 years and then have a $250,000 salvage value. During its first year in service, it is operated for 6500 hours. What is its depreciation in the first year using the MACRS method?(A) $113,000(B) $125,000(C) $225,000(D) $250,000
Business
1 answer:
Paha777 [63]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C.) $225,000

Explanation:

The modified accelerated cost recovery system (MACRS) is a depreciation system used for tax purposes in the U.S. MACRS depreciation allows the capitalized cost of an asset to be recovered over a specified period via annual deductions. The MACRS system puts fixed assets into classes that have set depreciation periods.

Subtract the asset's salvage value from its cost to determine the amount that can be depreciated. Divide this amount by the number of years in the asset's useful lifespan.

Then for monthly

Divide by 12 to tell you the monthly depreciation for the asset.

$2500000-$250000= $2250000

2250000/10= 225000

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Which two advantages do renters have that home buyers don’t have?
Ulleksa [173]

The two advantages are:

- Renters are not affected by changing property price

- Renters don’t have to pay for major repairs to the property

The housing department  require the home owner to pay for major repairs that happen in the rented place (Such as broken roof or leaking gas). Not only that, the owner of the home is the one that would be financially damaged if the housing markets experience a crash.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Therrell Corporation has two divisions: Bulb Division and Seed Division. The following report is for the most recent operating p
amm1812

Answer:

a. For Bulb = $183,418.92

b. For Seed = $96,759.49

c. Break even = $336,144.74

Explanation:

Sales = Bulb Division + Seed Division

= $234,000 + $156,000

= $390,000

Variable Expense = Bulb Division + Seed Division

= $60,840 + $32,760

= $93,600

Contribution margin for bulb = Sales - Variable

= $234,000 - $60,840

= $173,160

Contribution margin for Seed division = Sales - Variable

= $156,000 - $32,760

= $123,240

Total = $390,000 - $93,600

= $296,400

Division Income for bulb = contribution margin - Traceable fixed expenses

= $173,160 - $135,730

= $37,430

Division Income for seed division = contribution margin - Traceable fixed expenses

= $123,240 - $76,440

= $46,800

Total of Division income = $296,400 - $212,170

= $84,230

Common Fixed expenses = $25,980 + $17,320

= $43,300

Income = Total of Division income - Common Fixed expenses

= $84,230 - $43,300

= $40,930

Contribution margin ratio for bulb = Contribution ÷ Sales × 100

= $173,160 ÷ $234,000 × 100

= 74.00%

Contribution margin ratio for seed = Contribution ÷ Sales × 100

= $123,240 ÷ $156,000 × 100

= 79%

Total Contribution margin ratio for bulb and seed  = Contribution ÷ Sales × 100

= ($173,160 + $123,240) ÷ $390,000 × 100

= $296,400 ÷ $390,000 × 100

= 76%

a and b. Division’s break-even in sales dollars = Fixed costs ÷ Contribution margin ratio

For Bulb = $183,418.92

For Seed = $96,759.49

c. company’s overall break - even in sales dollars

= (212170 + 43300) ÷ 76%

= $336,144.74

5 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
Baker Inc. acquired equipment from the manufacturer on 10/1/2018 and gave a noninterest-bearing note in exchange. Baker is oblig
bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

4%

Explanation:

Interest included in $918000 is for six months from 10/1/18 to 4/1/12.

Interest for first three month period from 10/1/18 to 31/12/18 = $9000.

This implies that :

Interest from 1/1/19 to 4/1/19 = $9000.

Principal amount excluding interest due:

= Baker's obligation amount - Accrued interest - Accrued interest

= $918,000 - $9,000 - $9,000

= $900,000

Interest rate:

= [($9,000 × 12/3) ÷ 900000] × 100

= 4%

8 0
3 years ago
On January 2, 2009, L Co. issued at par $20,000 of 4% bonds convertible in total into 1,000 shares of L's common stock. No bonds
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is $1.2 per share.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Interest expense of Bonds = $20,000 × 4% = $800

Now, Interest expense of Bond, After tax = $800 × ( 1 - 50%) = $800 × 0.50

= $400

So, we can calculate the diluted earning by using following formula:

Diluted Earning = (Net income + Interest expense after tax) ÷ Total outstanding shares outstanding

Where, Total outstanding shares = 1,000 shares + 1,000 shares = 2,000 shares

By putting the value, we get

Diluted earning = ($2000 + $400 ) ÷ 2,000

= $1.2 per share

4 0
3 years ago
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