Answer: Monetary and fiscal policies
Explanation: Monetary and fiscal policies are two tools of the governments all over the world to stabilize economy in times of depression or recession.
These two can be explained as follows :-
1. Monetary policy refers to the decisions taken by the govt. to stabilize economy by adjusting the interest rates on short term borrowings or by changing the supply of money in the economy as per the need.
2. Whereas in fiscal policy federal govt. use tax collection and expenditure control for coping with depression or recession.
Answer:
internal rate of return is 20.463%
Explanation:
given data
Year Cash Flow
1 $48,000
2 $46,000
3 $41,000
equipment cost = $95,000
to find out
Determine the internal rate of return
solution
we consider here internal rate of return is x
so we can say present value of inflows = present value of outflows
equate here
$95000 = 
solve it we get
x = 20.463 %
so internal rate of return is 20.463%
Answer:
The journal entry to record the merchandise return and the payment should be:
Dr Cash 2,940
Dr Sales discount 60
Dr Sales returns and allowances 600
Cr Accounts receivable 3,000
The second entry must be made to record the increase in inventory:
Dr Merchandise inventory 600
Cr Sales returns and allowances 600
Explanation:
The sales returns and allowances account is used to record returned merchandise, while the sales discount account is used to record discounts for early payments or other types of sales discounts.
Answer:
The correct answer is $24,500.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Total Account receivable = $100,000
Amount collected = $70,000
So, if there is sufficient taxable income, then assume tax rate to be 35%.
So, we can calculate the Gains tax by using following formula:
Gain tax = Amount collected × Tax rate
By putting the value, we get
Gain tax = $70,000 × 35%
= $24,500.
Answer:
yield to maturity = 7.06%
Explanation:
yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:
YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]
- FV = $2,000
- PV = $1,902.14
- C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
- n = 12 x 2 = 24
YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually
Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.
