Answer:
the answer to your equation is 2
Answer:
234
Step-by-step explanation:
45+72=117
117x2=234
He would have 50$ in his account
Answer:
0.6826
Step-by-step explanation:
Mean(μ) = 37
Standard deviation (σ) = 9
P(28 < x < 46) = ???
Using normal distribution
Z = (x - μ)/σ
For x = 28
Z = (28 - 37)/9
Z = -9/9
Z = -1
For x = 46
Z = (46 - 37)/9
Z = 9/9
Z = 1
We now have
P(-1 < Z < 1)
= P(Z < 1) - P(Z < -1)
From the table, Z = 1 = 0.3413
φ(Z) = 0.3413
Recall that
When Z is positive, P(x<a) = 0.5 +φ(Z)
P(Z<1)= 0.5 + 0.3413
= 0.8413
When Z is negative, P(x<a) = 0.5 - φ(Z)
P(Z< -1)= 0.5 - 0.3413
= 0.1587
We now have
0.8413 - 0.1587
= 0.6826
So, we have that the final value of the zero coupon bond after ten years will be 3000$. The TIPS mature after 10 years, but the interest will be calculated only for 5 years. Each year of interest, the TIPS gains 2%*2500=2*25=50$. Hence the TIPS gains 50$ for each year of interest. Since the interest is not compounding, it will gain 5*50=250$ in value. Hence its total value after ten years is 2500+250=2750$. The total maximum value of the two assets combined is 3000+2750=5750$ and it is attained after 10 years. If one things that money is more important now than in 10 years, the assets could be sold at a lower price; nonetheless their max value never exceeds choice d)=5.750$
