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Alecsey [184]
3 years ago
12

Riverwood Properties bought three lots in a subdivision for a? lump-sum price. An independent appraiser valued the lots as?

Business
1 answer:
Law Incorporation [45]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The cost allocation of each lot is presented below:

                                          (A)                      (B)                            (A × B)

Lot       Appraised Value  Percentage  Purchase value          Allocated cost      

Lot 1        $76,500               15%               $355,000                 $53,250

Lot 2       $229,500             45%             $355,000                  $159,750

Lot 3      $204,000             40%            $355,000                   $142,000

Total      $510,000              100%                                              $355,000

Now the journal entry would be

Land - Lot 1 $53,250

Land - Lot 2  $159,750

Land - Lot 3   $142,000

     To Cash A/c $355,000

(Being the lots are purchased for cash)

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Nolan Company's cash account shows a $22,064 debit balance and its bank statement shows $22,531 on deposit at the close of busin
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

Nolan Company

Bank Reconciliation

June 30

                                                                                                     $

Balance per cash book                                                            22,064

Less: Bank Service charges                                                    (       24)

Add: Error in  recording payment ( $ 59- $ 50)                                9

Add: Interest earned                                                               <u>         27</u>

Adjusted balance per cash book                                           <u> 22,076</u>

Balance per bank statement                                                    22,531

Less: Outstanding checks                                                       (  2,655)

Add; Deposits in Transit                                                           <u>   2,200</u>

Adjusted balance per bank statement                                     <u>22,076</u>      

     

Explanation:

The bank service charges and the interest earned appear on the bank statement and has to be adjusted in the cash book balance. The errors found in recording the payment at $ 59 instead of  $ 50 results in an overpayment and the correction needs to be added to the cash book balance

the outstanding checks has not yet been cleared by the bank so there is a reduction on the bank statement balance. The deposits in transit has not been received by the bank so needs to be adjusted as an addition on the bank statement balance.

3 0
3 years ago
CSelect the items from this list that are examples of misconceptions.
DENIUS [597]
A- you’re never too young to limit your spendings
D- there’s is more to learn outside of high school for many careers
probably B too but i’m not sure
3 0
2 years ago
Ted can wax a car in 20 minutes or wash a car in 60 minutes. Tom can wax a car in 15 minutes or wash a car in 30 minutes. What i
babymother [125]

Answer:

0.33

0.5

Ted

Explanation:

Ted's opportunity cost = 20 / 60 = 0.33

Tom's opportunity cost = 15 / 30 = 0.5

A person has comparative advantage in an activity if he carries out the activity at a lower opportunity cost when compared with other people.

Thus, ted has an opportunity cost in washing cars.

I hope my answer helps you

4 0
3 years ago
Solve for the weighted average cost of capital. 11.28% = K1 = cost of equity capital for a leveraged firm 1/2 debt-to-total-mark
Elena-2011 [213]

Answer:

WACC = Ke(E/V)  + Kd(D/V)(1 - T)

WACC = 11.28(0.50) + 8.0(0.5)(1 - 0.40)

WACC = 5.64  +  2.40

WACC = 8.0%

The  correct answer is B

Explanation:

WACC equals cost of equity multiplied by proportion of equity in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt multiplied by proportion of debt in the capital structure. The proportion of equity and debt in the capital structure are 50% respectively. Ke refers to cost of equity, Kd denotes before tax cost of debt, T represents tax rate, E/V denotes proportion of equity in the capital structure and D/V represents proportion of debt in the capital structure.

4 0
3 years ago
RTF Oil has total sales of $911,400 and costs of $787,300. Depreciation is $52,600 and the tax rate is 21 percent. The firm is a
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

$109,085

Explanation:

From the question above RTF oil has a total sales of $911,500

The costs incurred by RTF oil is $787,300

Depreciation is $52,600

The tax rate is 21 percent

= 21/100

= 0.21

The first step is to calculate the EBIT

EBIT= Total sales-costs-depreciation

EBIT= $911,400-$787,300-$52,600

EBIT = $71,500

The next step is to calculate the tax

Tax= EBIT× tax rate

= $71,500×0.21

= $15,015

Therefore since we have gotten the tax and EBIT, the final stage is to calculate the operating cash flow

OCF= EBIT + depreciation- Tax

= $71,500+$52,600-$15,015

= $124,100-$15,015

= $109,085

Hence RTF oil has an operating cash flow of $109,085

6 0
3 years ago
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