Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation is shown below;
Cash bonus after tax is ($3,000 × (1 - 0.24) $2,280
And, non taxable fringe benefit is $2,300
So here he should use the nontaxable fringe benefit
b. Yes answer would be changed
Cash bonus after tax is ($3,000 × (1 - 0.12) $2,640
And, non taxable fringe benefit is $2,300
hence, the same is to be considered
Answer:
1,000 shares
Explanation:
The 318 attribution rule states that stock owned directly or indirectly by a partnership is considered to be owned by any partner that owns 5% or more in the business.
This is relevant to family owned businesses and is a way to mark out principal owners of a business in order to avoid tax evasion and fraud.
In this scenario John directly owns 700 of the outstanding shares. But according to the 318 attribution rule, since he he is a 50% partner he owns half of the outstanding 2,000 shares. That is 1,000 shares.
Answer:
bond market value $660
Explanation:
We need to calculate the present value of the maturity and the cuopon payment using the effective rate of 9.7%
First we do the annuity:
C 24.25 (1,000 face value x 4.85 bond rate / 2 )
time 24.00 (12 year 2 payment a year)
rate 0.04850 (current rate divide by 2 to get it annually)
PV $339.55
Then present value of the maturity
Maturity 1,000.00 the face value of the bond
time 24.00
rate 0.04850
PV 320.89
Finally we add them together:
PV coupon payment $339.5545
PV maturity $320.8910
Total $660.4455
rounding to nearest dollar
bond market value $660
