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astraxan [27]
2 years ago
9

3. Given: ABCE is a rectangle. D is the midpoint of E.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Georgia [21]2 years ago
7 0

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

ABCE is a rectangle .Rectangle is that quadrilateral in which opposite sides are equal and each  is equal to  90 degrees.

D is the midpoint of E.

We have to prove that AD\cong BD

Statement:1 ABCE is a rectangle.D is the mid point of CE

Reason: Given

Statement 2:\angle AED\cong \angle BCD

Reason:By definition of rectangle

Statement:3 AE=BC

Reason: By definition of rectangle

Statement 4:ED=DC

Reason: By definition of midpoint because D is the midpoint of side EC

Statement 5:\triangle AED\cong \triangle BCD

Reason:SAS postulate

Statement: 6 AD\cong BD

Reason:CPCT

Hence proved.

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Does this set of ordered pairs represent a function? Why or why not. Don’t need a step to step just the answer
Scrat [10]

Answer:

D. Yes,because every x-value corresponds to exactly one y-value.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given ordered pairs are;

{(-5,-5),(-1,-2),(0,-2),(3,7),(8,9)}

We do not have the same x-value corresponding to more than one y-value.

We can see from the ordered pairs that every x-value corresponds to exactly one y-value.

Therefore the graph of this relation will pass the vertical line test.

3 0
3 years ago
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Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535


P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0
2 years ago
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Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

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total runs = 300-8 = 292 runs

so x+3x = 292

4x = 292

x = 292/4

x = 73

so jivesh score 72 runs and rajat scores 216 runs

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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