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son4ous [18]
3 years ago
12

Due to ____, market forces should realign the relationship between the interest rate differential of two currencies and the forw

ard premium (or discount) on the forward exchange rate between the two currencies. forward realignment arbitrage triangular arbitrage covered interest arbitrage locational arbitrage
Business
2 answers:
xxTIMURxx [149]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Covered Interest Arbitrage

Explanation:

The Covered Interest Arbitrage is a term that refers to arbitrage trading approach in which a stockholder take the chance to gain advantage from the disparity in interest rate between two nations.

The trading strategy helps in its verifiability, quantifiability, consistency, and objectivity

It is designed to profit the investor from the differences in interest rates between two countries, when buying and selling foreign currencies.

When a market is small or there's a high level of competition, there's a possibility that the earnings on covered interest rate arbitrage won't yield much.

tester [92]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: The options are given below:

a. forward realignment arbitrage

b. triangular arbitrage

c. covered interest arbitrage

d. locational arbitrage

The correct option is C. Covered Interest Arbitrage

Explanation: Covered interest arbitrage is a technique whereby an investor uses a forward contract to hedge against exchange rate risk. Covered interest rate arbitrage is the practice of using favorable interest rate differentials to invest in a higher-yielding currency, and hedging the exchange risk through a forward currency contract.

Covered interest arbitrage is possible if and only if the cost of hedging the exchange risk is lower than the additional return generated by investing in a higher-yielding currency - hence the word, arbitrage.

When there is a small market or there exists a high level of competition, then the possibility will occur that the earnings on covered interest rate arbitrage will not yield much.

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Oriole Company has issued three different bonds during 2022. Interest is payable annually on each of these bonds. 1. On January
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

Transaction 1

Debit : Cash  ($1,000 x 1,000) $1,000,000

Credit : Bond Payable  $1,000,000

Transaction 2

Debit : Cash  ($854,000 x 101.30%) $865,102

Credit : Bond Payable  $865,102

Transaction 3

Debit : Cash  ($281,000 x 99%) $278,190

Credit : Bond Payable  $278,190

Explanation:

On each issuance date recognize a cash inflow and a liability - Bond Payable to the extent of the amount paid on issue.

5 0
3 years ago
Can I Plsss get some help on this thanks
jok3333 [9.3K]

The law of demand illustrates all quantities of goods that consumers are willing and able to buy at every possible price. (third option)

<h3>What is the law of demand?
</h3>

According to the law of demand, the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded by consumers and the lower the price, the higher the quantity demanded by consumers. There is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded

To learn more about the law of demand, please check: brainly.com/question/26546773

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow f
pashok25 [27]

Answer:

b. The lower the WACC used to calculate it, the lower the calculated NPV will be

Explanation:

When calculating NPV the cash inflows and cash outflows arising at the duration of the life are discounted at WACC. Generally, present value of outflow is same as actual as no discounting is done, as that occurs at the initial time of the project.

Cash inflows arising at year end are discounted.

When, WACC is lower The present value of inflows is lower in comparison to higher WACC.

Therefore, there is lower NPV with lower WACC.

Thus, Statement b. is correct.

b. The lower the WACC used to calculate it, the lower the calculated NPV will be

4 0
4 years ago
When economists and policymakers refer to the​ Fed's dual​ mandate, they are referring to:
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

A) price stability and maximum employment.

Explanation:

When Congress enacted the Federal Reserve Act in 1913, they stated the FED's mandates:

  1. promote maximum employment
  2. promote stable price

The FED's main objective is to conduct monetary policy in order to stabilize the economy and promote economic growth.

By stabilizing the economy the FED will lower inflation rate, therefore stabilizing prices. When the FED promotes economic growth, the unemployment rate should decrease, hopefully reaching a full employment.

5 0
4 years ago
Gina Baccardi is an accounting intern working under the tax accountant for Starlight Fashions, a clothing manufacturer, in New Y
vagabundo [1.1K]

Since he is working as a tax accountant for Starlight Fashions which is a clothing manufacturer, his salary would be classified as period cost..

<h3>What is period cost?</h3>

In preparation of financial account, a period cost refers to a cost that cannot be capitalized into prepaid expenses, inventory, fixed assets etc

In conclusion, because works as a tax accountant for the clothing manufacturer, his salary would be classified as period cost.

Read more about period cost

<em>brainly.com/question/24470417</em>

4 0
2 years ago
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