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Citrus2011 [14]
3 years ago
13

Why does it not make sense to graph f and f−1 on the same set of axes?

Mathematics
1 answer:
babymother [125]3 years ago
4 0

Here you have two graphs, one -- graph of the function y=f(x) on the coordinate plane with axes x and y, another -- graph of the function x=f^{-1}(y) on the coordinate plane with axes y and x.

Actually, these graphs are graphs of the same function, only axes are changed.

It makes the sense to graph to functions  f(x) and f^{-1}(x) on the same set of axes, not graphs of the same function y=f(x) and x=f^{-1}(y) on the different set of axes.

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