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Citrus2011 [14]
3 years ago
13

Why does it not make sense to graph f and f−1 on the same set of axes?

Mathematics
1 answer:
babymother [125]3 years ago
4 0

Here you have two graphs, one -- graph of the function y=f(x) on the coordinate plane with axes x and y, another -- graph of the function x=f^{-1}(y) on the coordinate plane with axes y and x.

Actually, these graphs are graphs of the same function, only axes are changed.

It makes the sense to graph to functions  f(x) and f^{-1}(x) on the same set of axes, not graphs of the same function y=f(x) and x=f^{-1}(y) on the different set of axes.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which expression would be equivalent to: Which expression would be equivalent to: \frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1)
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1) = \frac{b- 6a+7}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1)

Required

An equivalent expression

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1)

Take LCM

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1) = \frac{1+b- 2*3(a-1)}{2}

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1) = \frac{1+b- 6(a-1)}{2}

Open bracket

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1) = \frac{1+b- 6a+6}{2}

Collect like terms

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1) = \frac{b- 6a+6+1}{2}

\frac{1+b}{2} - 3(a-1) = \frac{b- 6a+7}{2}

Hence, an equivalent expression is:

\frac{b- 6a+7}{2}

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