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prisoha [69]
3 years ago
14

The following is an account for a production department, showing its costs for one month:Goods in Process InventoryBalance 5,400

Direct materials 21,600 Direct labor 16,200 Overhead 10,800 Assume that materials are added at the beginning of the production process and that direct labor and overhead are applied uniformly. If the units in ending goods in process inventory cost $4,590, and the started and completed units cost $41,850, what was the cost of completing the units in the beginning goods in process inventory?A. $12,150B. $2,160C. $7,560D. $54,000E. $37,260
Business
1 answer:
Viefleur [7K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: The correct answer is "B. $2,160."

Explanation: First we must calculate the total costs

Total cost = Goods in process inventory + Direct materials + Direct labor + Overhead.

Total cost = $5400 + $21600 + $16200 + $10800 = $ 54000.

Then the total transferred out =

Total transferred out = Total cost - units in the final inventory of goods in process.

Total transferred out = $54000 - $4590 = $49410.

Now we must know the beginning goods in process transferred out =

BGIP Transfered = Total transfered out - units started and completed.

BGIP Transfered = $49410 - $41850 = $7560

And finally we calculate the cost to complete the begining goods in process inventory which is =

Cost to complete BGIP = BGIP transfered out - Goods in Process Inventory Balance.

Cost to complete BGIP = $7560 - $5400 = <u>$2160</u>

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Hassock Corp. produces woven wall hangings. It takes 4 hours of direct labor to produce a single wall hanging. Hassock standard
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

Efficiency variance  =$9,860   unfavorable

Explanation:

Labour efficiency variance is the difference between the actual time taken to achieve a given production output less the standard hours allowed for same multiplied by the standard labour rate

                                                                                                  Hours

11,900 units should have take (11,900× 4hrs)                          47,600                      

but did take                                                                              <u>48,180</u>

Difference                                                                                   580  unfavorable

Standard hours                                                                     <u> ×   $17 </u>

Efficiency variance                                                           <u>$9,860   unfavorable</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Compute the payback for each of these two seperate investments:
fredd [130]

Answer:

a. 2.23

b. 3.21

Explanation:

a. Answer to Part A

Payback Period = Investment / Annual Cash Inflow

= 250000 / 112115

= 2.23

Answer to Part B

Payback Period = Investment / Annual Cash Inflow

= 200000 / 62375

= 3.21

Working Note

<em>Particulars                Case A     Case B </em>

After Tax Income  72115         39000

Add: Depreciation  40000       23375

Cash Inflow             11,2115         62375

<em>Particulars              Case A           Case B </em>

Cost of Machine     250000        200000

Less: salvage Value  10000         13000

Depreciable Value   240000        187000

Life of the Asset           6                  8

Annual Depreciation 40000         23375

8 0
3 years ago
Venzuela Company’s net income for 2020 is $50,000. The only potentially dilutive securities outstanding were 1,000 options issue
aev [14]

Answer:

$4.67 per share

Explanation:

The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:

= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)

where,

Total income is $50,000

Outstanding shares is 10,000

And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations

Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share

= 1,000 × $6

= $6,000

And,

Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price

= $6,000 ÷ $20

= 300

Therefore,

Diluted shares is

= Options issued - value of options

= 1,000 - 300

= 700

So Diluted Earnings per share is

= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)

= $4.67 per share

4 0
3 years ago
Consider an economy that is operating at its steady state. an increase in the investment rate in this economy will lead to:_____
andrew-mc [135]

Consider an economy that is operating at its steady state. an increase in the investment rate in this economy will lead to a temporary increase in the growth rate.

In the Solow model, a larger saving rate has no long-term impact on the growth rate. Higher steady-state capital stock and level of output do follow a higher saving rate. The growth rate briefly increases as production changes from a lower to a higher steady-state level. Low rates of saving the result in small capital stock in the steady state and low levels of output in the steady state. Only in the near run do higher savings translate into quicker economic development. Up until the economy reaches its new steady state, an increase in the saving rate causes growth to accelerate.

Learn more about the economy here brainly.com/question/1106682

#SPJ1.

7 0
2 years ago
On January 1, 2020, Tamarisk Corporation issued $700,000 of 9% bonds, due in 8 years. The bonds were issued for $740,784, and pa
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

Cash   740,783 debit

  Bonds payable    700,000 credit

  Premium ob BP      40,783 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 29,631.32 debit

premium on BP      1,868.68 debit

         cash                     31,500  credit

--to reocrd first interest payment--

Interest expense 29,556.57 debit

premium on BP      1,943.43 debit

     interest payable          31,500  credit

--to record accrued interest at year-end on BP--

Explanation:

procceds                      740,783

face value                <u>     700,000    </u>

premium on bonds payable 40,783

When comparing, the firm received more than the face value hence, there is a premium on the bonds as the coupon payment are above the market rate.

Now, the interest will be calculate as follow:

carrying value x market rate:

740,783 x 0.08/2 = 29,631.32 interest expense

cash outlay:

700,000 x 0.09/2 = 31,500

amortization on premium (difference) 1,868.68

new carrying value: 740,783 - 1,868,68 = 738,914

second payment accrual:

738,914 x 0.04 = 29,556.57

cash outlay                  31500

amortization    1,943.43

7 0
3 years ago
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