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Westkost [7]
3 years ago
5

When marginal cost is below average variable cost, average variable cost must be:______a. At its minimum. b. At its maximum. c.

Falling. d. Rising.
Business
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

c. Falling

Explanation:

Marginal costs — additional OR incremental costs for the production of an additional unit of the product, equal to the change in total costs divided by the change in the volume of production (and in the short term - the change in total variable costs divided by the change in production).

Average Variable Cost (AVC) is the total variable cost per unit of output. This is found by dividing the total variable cost (TVC) by the total output (Q). Total Variable Cost (TVC) is all costs that vary with output and material. The easiest way to determine if a cost is volatile is whether the product has changed.  Profit companies will use AVC to determine where production will close in the shortest possible time. If the product they buy for good is higher than AVC for the product they produce, they pay at least all the variable costs and some fixed costs.

Since MC is the cost of producing the next unit, the AVC should fall when it is under AVC. AVC falls because MC costs the next unit produced; therefore, when the next unit costs less than the average, it should be pulling the average down. With the same logic, when MC is above AVC, it pushes the average upwards, so the AVC needs to rise. When the marginal unit is more expensive than the average, the average should increase. By definition, the MC curve intersects the AVC curve at the minimum point in the AVC curve. At the junction MC and AVC are equal.

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The Sneed Corporation issues 10,000 shares of $50 par preferred stock for cash at $75 per share. The entry to record the transac
larisa [96]

Answer:

The answer is D.

Explanation:

Value of cash received is :

10,000 shares x $75

=$750,000

And that's a debit as it is shown in the question because cash was received.

Now the credit side.

Value of preferred stock is $50

So we have:

$50 x 10,000 shares

=$500,000 preferred shares.

Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par ValuePreferred Stock is $25 ($75 -$50)

So the value will be $25 x $10,000

=$250,000

3 0
3 years ago
Hancock Inc. retains most of its earnings. The company currently has earnings per share of $11. Hancock expects its earnings to
monitta

Answer:

D1 = $3.50

D2 = $3.50

D3 = $3.50

Ke = 10% = 0.1

Po = <u>D1</u> +     <u>D2</u> +      <u>D3 </u>

      (1+ke)   (1+ke)2   (1+ke)3

Po = <u>$3.50</u> +   <u>$3.50</u>  + <u>$3.50 </u>

        (1+0.1)      (1+0.1)2  (1+0.1)3

Po = $3.18    +  $2.89  + $2.63

Po = $8.70

None of the above

Explanation:

In this scenario, we need to discount the dividend in each year by the required at rate of return of 10%. The aggregate of the price obtained as a result of discounting in year 1 to year 3 gives the current market price.

7 0
3 years ago
Jimmy's supervisor noticed that he was falling short on the number of setups he was required to complete for the production depa
-BARSIC- [3]

Answer:

C. Take corrective action.

Explanation:

According to the information given to us in the question, we can say that Jimmy's supervisor is taking corrective action when he gives Jimmy suggestions to improve his efficiency. We can determine this because Jimmy has been lacking in productivity and by giving him pointers on how to improve his productivity Jimmy's manager is taking action towards solving a problem.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2018, Baddour, Inc., issued 10% bonds with a face amount of $168 million. The bonds were priced at $147.2 million
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

(A)Balance sheet

Bonds at September 30th

Bonds Payable      168,000,000

Discount on Bonds  (20,152,000)

Interest Payable       12,600,000

Net                          160,448,000

(B) Income Statment

Interest Expense 13,248,000

(C)Cash Flow Statment

Financing

Cash generate for Bonds issued 147,200,000

Explanation:

Jan 1st, 2018 168,000,000 face value

Issed at 147.2M for an effective rate of 12%

Discount of 20.8M

Bonds at September 30th

<em>accrued interest expense:</em> 147,200,000 x 12% x 9/12 = 13,248,000

<em>interest payable: </em>168,000,000 x 10% x 9/12 = 12,600,000

<em>amortization of Discount:</em> 648,000

7 0
3 years ago
How auto insurance companies manage risk ?<br>​
Nana76 [90]

____________________________________________________

Answer:

Insurance companies manages risk by balancing the low-risk drivers and the high-risk drivers. Insurance would charge higher rates for high risk drivers.

____________________________________________________

Explanation:

Insurance companies manages risk by sorting out the people who have a lower chance of risking a crash, with people who have a higher chance of risking a crash. They do this by charging low rates to the people that have a lower chance of causing a risk. They charge them low because they are trustworthy, and don't need to rack up a lot of money quick if they ever get into a crash. Remember, insurance makes people pay monthly so they could use that money in a accident.

But, this is different for people with higher risk. People that have a high risk of getting into an accident would be charged with a higher rate than people with lower risk. Insurance companies charge them with higher rates because since higher risk drivers get are more likely to get into an accident, insurance companies want to make sure that they can get the money for the accident as soon as possible. Insurance companies are the ones that pay for the accident, and that's why most places require you to have insurance while you drive.

____________________________________________________

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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