Answer:
$44,325.
Explanation:
In this question we use the future value formula which is shown below:
Future value = Present value × (1 + interest rate)^number of years
= $22,500 × (1 + 0.07)^10
= $22,500 × 1.97
= $44,325
We simply applied the future value by considering the present value, interest rate and the number of years
Answer:
Option C is correct.
The correct sequence is (2), (3), (1)
Explanation:
(2) Amounts deductible under other Code sections without regard to the nature of the activity, such as property taxes and home mortgage interest. should be deducted first
(3) Amounts deductible under other Code sections if the activity had been engaged in for profit, but only if those amounts do not affect adjusted basis (e.g., maintenance, utilities, and supplies). are deducted next
(1)Deductions affecting adjusted basis (e.g., depreciation) are taken next. At any point where the expenses exceed income, the deduction is limited to the remaining income.
The major reason a country might choose to devalue its currency is to encourage exports.
<h3>What do you mean by Devaluation?</h3>
Devaluation refers to the downward movement in the value of the country's currency. The government that issues the currency has the power to devalue its currency.
Devaluating the currency reduces the cost of a country's exports and reduces trade deficits. For encouraging exports, a country chooses to devalue the currency.
Therefore, B is the correct option.
Learn more about Devaluation here:
brainly.com/question/15293218
Within each of the three larger categories, best practices are categorized by four stages of process improvement.
<h3>What is Process Improvement?</h3>
Process Improvement serves as the proactive task of identifying as well as analyzing existing business processes within an organization.
The four stages of process improvement are;
- Identify the need for change
- identify the need for change.
- Analyzing current process
- Seek commitment and support.
- Look for improvement strategy
learn more about Process Improvement at;
brainly.com/question/11837585
Answer:
$6,574
Explanation:
Allowance for uncollectible accounts is a contra asset account and it has credit nature. It needs to be debited to decrease the balance and credited to increase the balance. Balance of this account is adjusted in the account receivable to report the net receivable balance in the balance sheet.
As per given data
Beginning allowance for uncollectible accounts balance = $216,000
Write off is the adjustment mad in this account and it needs to be debited in this account, this transaction will reduce the balance.
Adjusted Balance = $8,400 - 7,800 = $600
Account receivable balance = $216,000 + 1,007,800 - $978,000 = $245,800
Estimated allowance for uncollectible accounts balance = $245,800 x 3% = $7,374
As allowance for uncollectible accounts has already have balance of $600, Bad debt expense for the year is $6,574 ($7,374 - $800)
