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PtichkaEL [24]
2 years ago
14

3. Sove P-2(1t) for I. PW 10= 12 P +W

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]2 years ago
6 0
P-2t is the answer I hope this helped
You might be interested in
Item 11
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

4 ft higher

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the ladder is 10 ft long and its top is 6 feet high(above the ground), we find the distance of its base from the wall since these three (the ladder, wall and ground) form a right angled triangle. Let d be the distance from the wall to the ladder.

So, by Pythagoras' theorem,

10² = 6² + d²  (the length of the ladder is the hypotenuse side)

d² = 10² - 6²

d² = 100 - 36

d² = 64

d = √64

d = 8 ft

Since the ladder is moved so that the base of the ladder travels toward the wall twice the distance that the top of the ladder moves up.

Now, let x be the distance the top of the ladder is moved, the new height of top of the ladder is 6 + x. Since the base moves twice the distance the top of the ladder moves up, the new distance for our base is 8 - 2x(It reduces since it gets closer to the wall).

Now, applying Pythagoras' theorem to the ladder with these new lengths, we have

10² = (6 + x)² + (8 - 2x)²

Expanding the brackets, we have

100 = 36 + 12x + x² + 64 - 32x + 4x²

collecting like terms, we have

100 = 4x² + x² + 12x - 32x + 64 + 36

100 = 5x² - 20x + 100

Subtracting 100 from both sides, we have

100 - 100 = 5x² - 20x + 100 - 100

5x² - 20x = 0

Factorizing, we have

5x(x - 4) = 0

5x = 0 or x - 4 = 0

x = 0 or x = 4

The top of the ladder is thus 4 ft higher

7 0
2 years ago
What is the surface area of this design ?
Fed [463]

Answer:

384 8x8=64 64x2=128 128x3=384

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Please someone help I don’t understand this
irina [24]

Answer:

336

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Can you solve this question for me?
krek1111 [17]

y+2 = 3x

subtract 2 from each side

y = 3x-2

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plzz help me to solve this qns please
tatiyna

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  ₹14000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let c represent the cost price, and m represent the marked price.

  c × (1 +40%) = m

  m × (1 -15%) - c = ₹1900

Using the first expression for m, the second equation becomes ...

  1.40c×0.85 -c = ₹1900

  0.19c = ₹1900

  c = ₹1900/0.19 = ₹10000

Then the marked price was ...

  m = 1.40c = 1.40×₹10000 = ₹14000

The marked price was ₹14000.

_____

The selling price was ₹11900.

7 0
3 years ago
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