Answer:
m₁/m₂ =8
Explanation:
Writing the centripetal force equation: where T₁ is inner tension and T₂ is outer tension
T₂ = m₂ × ω²R....equation 1
T₁-T₂ = m₁ × ω²R/2
Also T₁=5T₂
5T₂-T₂ = m₁ × ω²R/2
4 × 2T₂ = m₁ × ω²R
8T₂ = m₁ × ω²R
dividing it by equation 1
8 = m₁/m₂
Hence m₁/m₂ =8
Light is either potential energy or kinetic.
Explanation:
Resistance is defined as the ability of a substance to resist the flow of current through the substance. Formula to calculate resistance is as follows.
R =
As outer surface of a wire is in the shape of sphere. therefore, its area will be as follows.
A = ![4 \pi r^{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4%20%5Cpi%20r%5E%7B2%7D)
or, A = ![4 \pi (\frac{d}{2})^{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4%20%5Cpi%20%28%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7B2%7D%29%5E%7B2%7D)
where, d = diameter of the sphere
This means that with increase in diameter of a conductor there will occur an increase in area of the wire. As area is inversely proportional to resistance so, increase in area will lead to a decrease in resistance.
On the other hand, relation between resistivity and temperature is as follows.
![\rho \propto \frac{1}{d} \propto A^{2} \propto T](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Crho%20%5Cpropto%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Bd%7D%20%5Cpropto%20A%5E%7B2%7D%20%5Cpropto%20T)
where,
= resistivity
d = mean free path of electrons
A = amplitude of atomic vibrations
T = temperature
Also, resistivity is directly proportional to resistance. So, with increase in temperature there will occur an increase in resistance of the conductor.
Thus, we can conclude that only technician B is correct.
Answer:
Where is question 12, we need it to answer this question
Explanation:
Explanation:
It is given that,
Velocity of the electron, ![v=(2\times 10^6i+3\times 10^6j)\ m/s](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=v%3D%282%5Ctimes%2010%5E6i%2B3%5Ctimes%2010%5E6j%29%5C%20m%2Fs)
Magnetic field, ![B=(0.030i-0.15j)\ T](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%3D%280.030i-0.15j%29%5C%20T)
Charge of electron, ![q_e=-1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=q_e%3D-1.6%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-19%7D%5C%20C)
(a) Let
is the force on the electron due to the magnetic field. The magnetic force acting on it is given by :
![F_e=q_e(v\times B)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_e%3Dq_e%28v%5Ctimes%20B%29)
![F_e=1.6\times 10^{-19}\times [(2\times 10^6i+3\times 10^6j)\times (0.030i-0.15j)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_e%3D1.6%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-19%7D%5Ctimes%20%5B%282%5Ctimes%2010%5E6i%2B3%5Ctimes%2010%5E6j%29%5Ctimes%20%280.030i-0.15j%29%5D)
![F_e=-1.6\times 10^{-19}\times (-390000)(k)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_e%3D-1.6%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-19%7D%5Ctimes%20%28-390000%29%28k%29)
![F_e=6.24\times 10^{-14}k\ N](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_e%3D6.24%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-14%7Dk%5C%20N)
(b) The charge of electron, ![q_p=1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=q_p%3D1.6%5Ctimes%2010%5E%7B-19%7D%5C%20C)
The force acting on the proton is same as force on electron but in opposite direction i.e (-k). Hence, this is the required solution.