a)
because it is equal to the area of the shaded region between X=4 and X=6, and the probability that X falls within some interval is given by the area under the PDF.
b)
because the shaded region is a rectangle of height 1/5 (by virtue of X following a uniform distribution over the interval [2, 7], which has length 5).
Answer:
78
Step-by-step explanation:
is there more to this problem?
13. 00* 6 = 78
2/3 is equivalent to 16/24
and 5/8 is equivalent to 15/24 miles
15/24+16/24= 31/24
31/24 simplifies to 1 6/24
Which simplifies down to 1 1/6
Miles ran 1 and 1/6 miles
Answer:
Your correct answer is option C. -2 (9 + 32n)
Step-by-step explanation:
Solution:
Options are not given in the question
Given First degree expression:
-18-64n
= (-2)×9 + (-2)×32n
Take (-2) common, we get
= (-2)( 9+32n)
Therefore you get your answer of option C. -2(9+32n)
Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
i guess