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LenKa [72]
3 years ago
6

Suppose the fed sells​ $100 of government securities. if the desired reserve ratio is 20 percent and there is no currency​ drain

, then the quantity of money
Business
1 answer:
Julli [10]3 years ago
5 0

The reserve ratio is the part of a depositor ’s balances that banks must have on hand as cash.

This is a requirement determined by Federal Reserve and this affects the money supply in a country at any given time.

<span>If the desired reserve ratio is 20%, and the FED sold $100 of government and there is no currency drain, then the quantity or supply of money will decrease. </span>

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1. A major controversy that is yet to be resolved about the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act of 200
qaws [65]

Answer:

C. What the program will ultimately cost the federal government

Explanation:

The Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 was an attempt to make improvements or amendments to the Social Security Act.  It radically changed the playing field for private plans participating in the Medicare program by substantially raising monthly payment rates in an effort to stabilize the market and reverse the decline in benefit generosity.  It also provided for voluntary prescription drugs under the medicare program.  However, the utilization and cost of the program skyrocketed as soon as the funding source was established.  It has remained unknown what the program will ultimately cost the federal government, no wonder the current administration under Trump wants to turn it upside down.

3 0
3 years ago
Intellectual capital alludes to substantial resources and assets of a venture that are caught by traditional accounting reports.
Alex787 [66]

Answer: False

Explanation:

Intellectual capital simply refers to the intangible assets and the resources that helps in the contribution to the value of a particular company or enterprise and help such company to gain competitive advantage over its counterparts.

It should be noted that these assets and resources aren't caught by the traditional accounting reports.

The above statement means that the statement in the question is wrong. Intellectual capital are not caught by traditional accounting reports.

8 0
3 years ago
Ge is disrupting itself by using reverse innovation to create low-cost health care diagnostic products in emerging markets. all
umka2103 [35]

ge is utilizing reverse innovation in order to protect itself from rivals.

<h3>What is  reverse innovation?</h3>

Reverse innovation or trickle-up innovation An innovation is one that is first noticed or used in the developing world before moving to the industrialised world. Dartmouth academicians Vijay Govindarajan and Chris Trimble, as well as General Electric's Jeffrey R. Immelt, popularised the term.

Reverse innovation is the process by which goods developed as low-cost prototypes to satisfy the needs of developing countries, such as battery-powered medical tools in countries with poor infrastructure, are repackaged as low-cost novel goods for Western purchasers.

The approach of innovating in emerging (or developing) markets and then distributing/marketing these inventions in mature ones is known as reverse innovation. Many businesses are creating items in rising markets such as China and India and then distributing them abroad.

To know more about  reverse innovation follow the link:

brainly.com/question/14085977

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
Price taking behavior for a firm means that:
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

d. the firm has no individual effect on the market price.            

Explanation:

Price taker -

It refers to the company or an individual who need to get the prevailing price of the market and have lesser market share , is referred to as price taker .

The price taker does not have the capability to alter the market price , because it does not have enough power to do the same .

A price taker can be any one in the economy , and can freely take entry and exit .  

Hence, from the given information of the question,  

The correct option is d.

5 0
4 years ago
During its most recent period, Raymond Manufacturing expected Job No. 59 to cost $600,000 of overhead, $1,000,000 of materials,
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

Under/over applied overhead= $70,000 overapplied

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Job No. 59:

$600,000 of overhead

$400,000 in labor.

Raymond applied overhead based on direct labor cost.

Actual production required an overhead cost of $590,000, and $440,000 in labor.

F<u>irst, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 600,000/400,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.5 per direct labor dollar

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 1.5*440,000

Allocated MOH= $660,000

<u>Finally, the over/under allocation:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 590,000 - 660,000

Under/over applied overhead= $70,000 overapplied

5 0
3 years ago
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