Answer:
18.80%
Explanation:
Data given
Risk free rate = 4%
Beta = 1.85
Market return = 12%
The computation of rate of return is shown below:-
Using CAPM
Rate of Return = Risk free rate + Beta × (Market return- Risk free rate)
= 4% + 1.85 × (12% - 4%)
= 4% + 1.85 × 8%
= 4% + 14.8%
= 18.80%
Therefore for computing the rate of return we simply applied the above formula.
The present value factor of an annuity that will mature in 20 years at an interest rate of 8% is <u>9.8181474.</u>
<h3>What is the present value interest factor?</h3>
It can be found by using the present value of an annuity formula of:
= Amount x ( 1 - ( 1 + rate) ^ - number of periods) / Rate
As there is no amount, solving gives:
= ( 1 - ( 1 + 8%) ⁻²⁰) / 8%
= 9.8181474
In conclusion, it is 9.8181474.
Find out more on present value of annuity at brainly.com/question/25792915.
Answer: The following are the similarities between job order and process costing:
Explanation:
Job order costing and process costing have significant similarities:
- Both job and process cost frameworks have a similar objective: to decide the expense of items.
- Both job and process cost frameworks have a similar cost streams. Bookkeepers record production in separate records for materials stock, work, and overhead. At that point, they move the expenses to a Work in Process Inventory account.
- Both job and process cost frameworks used predetermined overhead rates to apply overhead.
Capital
Capital have credit balance because capital is the owner's investment in the business and its a liability for the business to pay the capital in future.
Increase will capital have credit balance and it is reported on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.
Cash , expense, accounts receivable have debit balance as it is treated as asset of the business and have debit balance.
As per the double entry system , every transaction has debit and credit. multiple accounts are affected.
The amount of capital will always equal to the the all assets less all liabilities.
In the year end , profit or loss is apportioned in the capital account.
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Answer:
Income (loss) 77080 76650
Explanation:
Timberlake Company
Sell Lease
Revenue 82000 84600
Expense -4920 -7950
Income (loss) 77080 76650
Therefore Company should sell the equipment
6%×82,000 =4920