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4 years ago

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Smith Fabricating uses job costing and applies overhead using a normal costing system and uses direct labour cost as the allocat

ion base. This period's estimated overhead cost is $100,000 and estimated direct labour cost of $50,000 and 2,500 direct labour hours. What is the total manufacturing cost of Job 201?
A. $1,500
B. $850
C. $950
D. $550

1 answer:

SSSSS [86.1K]4 years ago

7 0

Answer: C. $950

Explanation:

Hello.

Your question was missing a few details so I threw them in. You'll find it in attachments.

To calculate the total Manufacturing costs for Job 201 we would need to calculate the overhead cost allocation rate first to find out how much Overhead to allocate to Job 201.

Using a normal costing system with direct labour cost as the allocation base,

Overhead allocation rate = (Overheads/Direct Labor Cost)*100

= (100,000/50,000)*100

=200%

Overhead allocation rate is 200% or 2x direct labor cost.

Now to calculate the total Manufacturing costs of Job 201,

Total manufacturing cost for Job 201 = Direct Material + Direct Labor + Manufacturing Overheads

= 350 + 200 + (200*2 for manufacturing overhead)

= 350 + 200 + 400

= $950

$950 is the total manufacturing cost for Job 201 making option C correct.

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Read 2 more answers

We observe the following annualized yields on four Treasury securities: (75%)

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Explanation:

1.

From the given information;

The spot rate for maturity at 0.5 year $(X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%$

The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

By solving for $X_2$ ;

$X_2$ = 2.253%

The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:

$= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000$

Solving for $X_3$

$X_3$ = 2.510%

The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:

$= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4} =1000$

By solving for $X_4$ ;

$X_4$ = 2.770%

Recall that:

Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.

Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.

2.

For n years, the price of n-bond is:

$= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+ \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... + \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}$

Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;

∴

$= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} + \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}$

= $1047.024

3.

Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:

$= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}$

= 956.4183

Since the market price < arbitrage price.

We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio

Now;

weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000

weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000

weight 2 = 1022.5/1000

weight 2 = 0.976

weight 1 + weight 2 = 1

weight 1 = 1 - weight 2

weight 1 = 1 - 0.976

weight 1 = 0.022

The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:

$= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}$

The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000

Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42

= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 × 1000

= 956.42

So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.

Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42

4.

The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:

Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 $X_1$ = 2%

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1

$(1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

$(1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5

$(1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

$(1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2

$(1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

$(1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%

5.

The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :

= $\dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}$

$= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}$

= 1013.724254

= 1013.72

4 0

3 years ago