Answer:
December 31, year 9
Explanation:
Here, we want to state that date that is possible for Milo to acquire qualified replacement property.
In order to avoid being taxed on a gain resulting from an involuntary conversion, the property subject to the conversion must be replaced within a specified time, measured from the end of the calendar year in which the proceeds are received.
Generally, the period is 2 years, but it is 3 years when the involuntary conversion results from government condemnation or eminent domain and is extended to 4 years when the loss is in connection with a declared federal disaster area.
We are told from the question that Milo received the recovery on January 2, Year 5, the property would have to be replaced within 4 years from the end of Year 5 or by December 31, Year 9
Answer: $12
Explanation:
In selling the obsolete goods, the company will incur Variable Marketing costs and the alternative will be to throw the goods away.
The relevant costs they will incur are therefore the Variable Marketing costs alone.
The lowest amount that a company should accept for a good is the price that equals it's cost so that they may at least Break-Even.
Seeing as the Variable Marketing Costs are the only relevant cost then the lowest they should accept is the Variable Marketing Costs of $12.
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $500
Number of months= 50
Monthly interest rate= 0.07/12= 0.00583
First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= cash flow
FV= {500*[(1.00583^50) - 1]} / 0.00583
FV= $28,928.06
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 28,928.06/(1.00583^50)
PV= $21,631.67
Answer:
for example in a small timr of a gift shop in a large bowl with the story and the app store and all of them in a new location for the next i would have a little bit more float in my house and the other half the time it is th good for me a lot and all of my dear friend and all the others I am not playing in my own words and all the other ones are you and all the others who have a problem
Answer: Please refer to Explanation.
Explanation:
Monopoly.
The 2 reasons why the monopoly’s marginal revenue will always be less than its price are;
a) Even though Monopolies have very large influence on the prices of goods and services they offer, for a Monopoly to sell more goods, they generally have to lower their prices. This will lead to a situation where Marginal Revenue, which is the additional revenue made per additional unit sold will be less than Price because additional revenue for a new unit will be less than the last one because prices are dropped .
b) A Monopoly's demand schedule is downward sloping. This means that demand rises as prices drop. As prices drop therefore, more goods will be sold but the marginal revenue will be less because prices had to be dropped to get an additional unit to be sold. That unit therefore will bring in less revenue than the last unit.
Perfectly Competitive Market
In such a market, the seller is a Price Taker. This means that sellers in this market do not sell at a price that they want but rather at a price the market has established to be the Equilibrium. This is because of the high competition in the market. Since they are all selling at the same price, this means that every additional revenue they get is the same as the price the market charges. This means that Price equals Marginal Revenue in this market.
