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LenKa [72]
3 years ago
15

Jerry, a partner with 30 percent capital and profits interest, received his Schedule K-1 from Plush Pillows, LP. At the beginnin

g of the year, Jerry's tax basis in his partnership interest was $44,000. His current-year Schedule K-1 reported an ordinary loss of $9,000, long-term capital gain of $4,600, qualified dividends of $3,600, $2,100 of non-deductible expenses, a $26,000 cash contribution, and a reduction of $5,600 in his share of partnership debt. What is Jerry's adjusted basis in his partnership interest (outside basis) at the end of the year
Business
1 answer:
Ierofanga [76]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: $61,500

Explanation:

Jerry's adjusted basis in his partnership interest at the end of the year is determined by adding his cash contributions, long-term capital gain, and qualified dividends to the original tax basis.

There will also be deductions of the non-deductible expenses, ordinary loss and his share of the reduction in partnership debt.

Jerry's adjusted basis at the end of the year = ( 44,000 + 26,000 + 3,600 4,600) - ( 2,100 + 9,000 + 5,600)

= 78,200 - 16,700

= $61,500

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Tate's annual salary is $36,460 paid twice each month. How much is
Kazeer [188]

Answer:

$93

Explanation:

Social security tax is a constant figure of 6.2% for each paycheck.

Tate's annual pay is $36,000. If she is paid twice per month, it means she has 24 paychecks. ( 12 months x 2 payments).

For each payment, she receives, $36,000 divide by 24 paychecks

=$36,000 /24

=$1500

Amount withheld for each paycheck is

=6.2% of $1500

=6.2/100 x 1500

=0.062  X 1500

=$93

8 0
3 years ago
Barney wants to start a new business that yields a profit of​ 20% per year after a period of 2 years. In this​ period, if he
crimeas [40]

Answer:

Opportunity costs.

Explanation:

Investing in stocks depicts Barney's opportunity cost of money.

The opportunity cost is the money or funds held up by an individual instead of investing it in other businesses or ventures to yield interests.

5 0
4 years ago
A stockholder sold her shares and made a profit of $1,403. If that is a profit of 27%, how much were the shares worth when she o
tigry1 [53]

The worth of the shares when the stockholder originally purchased them is $1105.

<h3>What are shares?</h3>

Shares are fractional ownership interests in a corporation. For some businesses, shares are a type of financial instrument that allows for the equitable distribution of any declared residual profits in the form of dividends.

It is assumed that the purchase price of the share is $100. As the stockholder sold her shares for $1,403, making a profit of 27%, it implies that:

  127 = $1,403

∴ 100 = $1,403/127 × 100

        = $1104.72

Therefore, $1104.72 is the original purchase price of the share.

To learn more about share, click here:

brainly.com/question/28392295

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
When Apple, Inc. opened retail stores to sell its computers and iPods, this was an example of:
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": forward vertical integration.

Explanation:

Forward integration happens when a business takes over functions that were originally performed by its partners in the supply chain. Forward integration can be horizontal and vertical. Forward horizontal integration takes place when one company takes over another at the same level of the supply chain. In forward vertical integration, a firm takes charge of the businesses located farther down the supply chain.

4 0
3 years ago
14-2B (Issuance and Retirement of Bonds) StarCenter Co. Is building a new music arena at a cost of $5,600,000. It received a dow
mezya [45]

Answer:

there are no requirements, but I assume that they ask about issuance costs and their amortization:

market price of the bonds:

PV of face value = $5,000,000 / (1 + 10%)²⁰ = $743,218

PV of coupon payments = $400,000 x 8.5136 (PV annuity factor, 10%, 20 periods) = $3,405,440

market price = $4,148,658

Journal entry to record issuance and bond issue costs

January 1, 2013

Dr Cash 4,088,658

Dr Discount on bonds payable 851,342

Dr Bond issue costs 60,000

    Cr Bonds payable 5,000,000

amortization of bond discount and issue costs = ($4,088,658 x 10%) - $400,000 = $8,865.80 ≈ $8,866

allocation to bond issue costs = ($60,000 / $911,342) x $8,866 = $583.71  ≈ $584

allocation to bond discount = $8,866 - $584 = $8,282

Journal entry to record first coupon payment

January 1, 2014

Dr Interest expense 408,866

    Cr Cash 400,000

    Cr Discount on bonds payable 8,282

    Cr Bond issue costs 584

4 0
3 years ago
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