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Andrew [12]
3 years ago
8

Geom help please will give brainliest

Mathematics
2 answers:
k0ka [10]3 years ago
6 0

Try this option:

1] P(S)=0.84;

2] P(S or C, but not both)=0.4;

3] P(C)=0.76;

4] P(S∪C)=0.6;

5] P(C, but not S)=0.16;

6] P(S∩C)=1.00.

Oksana_A [137]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

We are given with a Venn diagram.

In Venn Diagram,

S represent Swam

C represent Built Sandcastles.

n( S - (S∩C) ) = 6

n( C - (S∩C) ) = 4

n( S ∩ C ) = 15

To find: P(S) , P(C) , P(S or C, but not Both) = P((S∪C) - (S∩C)) , P( S ∪ C ) ,

P(S ∩ C) , P(C , but not S ) =  P(C - (S∩C))

n(S) = n( S - (S∩C) ) + n(S∩C) = 6 + 15 = 21

n(C) = n( C - (S∩C) ) + n(S∩C) = 4 + 15 = 19

n(S∪C) = n( C - (S∩C) ) + n( S - (S∩C) ) + n(S∩C) = 6 + 4 + 15 = 25

Now, P(S)=\frac{21}{25}=0.84

P(S\:or\:C,\:but\:not\:Both)=P((S\cup C)-(S\cap C))=\frac{10}{25}=0.40

P(C)=\frac{19}{25}=0.76

P(S\cup C)=\frac{25}{25}=1.00

P(C\:,\:but\:not\:S)=P(C - (S\cap C))=\frac{4}{25}=0.16

P(S\cap C)=\frac{15}{25}=0.60

Therefore, Match the answers as above.

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salantis [7]
Sarah will need 27pts her lowest score
3 0
3 years ago
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
3 years ago
Determine whether the degree of the function is even or odd and whether the function itself is even or odd.
Fynjy0 [20]

Answer:

There are Even, Odd and None of them and this does not depend on the degree but on the relation. An Even function: f(-x)=f(x) And Odd one: -f(x)=f(-x)

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Firstly let's remember the definition of Even and Odd function.

An Even function satisfies this relation:

f(-x)=f(x)

An Odd function satisfies that:

-f(x)=f(-x)

2) <u>Since no function has been given</u>. let's choose some nonlinear functions and test with respect to their degree:

f(x)=x^{2}-4, g(x)= x^{5}+x^{3}

f(x)=x^2 -4\Rightarrow f(-x)=(-x)^{2}-4\Rightarrow f(-x)=x^{2}-4\therefore f(x)=f(-x)

g(-x)=-(x^{5}+x^{3})\Rightarrow g(-x)=-x^{5}-x^{3}\Rightarrow g(-x)=-g(x)

3) Then these functions are respectively even and odd, because they passed on the test for even and odd functions namely, f(-x)=f(x) and -f(x)=f(x) for odd functions.

Since we need to have symmetry to y axis to Even functions, and Symmetry to Odd functions, and moreover, there are cases of not even or odd functions we must test each one case by case.

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IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

663

Step-by-step explanation:

-337=x-1000

-x-337=-1000

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-x=-663

÷

663

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ale4655 [162]
Area of rectangle = length x breadth
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= 38.25
= 38 sq. inches (After rounding)
Hope this helps you!
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