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Serga [27]
3 years ago
14

Solve for c. a(b-c)=d

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lisa [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D: c=(ab-d)/a

Step-by-step explanation:

a(b-c)=d

ab-ac=d

ab=ac+d

ab-d=ac

(ab-d)/a=c

Len [333]3 years ago
5 0

<u>D. </u><u><em>c=ab-d/a is the correct answer.</em></u>  First you had to add by -ab from both sides of equation, and it gave us, ab-ac+-ab=d+-ab, or -ac=-ab+d. Then divide by -a from both sides of equation, and it gave us, \frac{-ac}{-a}= \frac{-ab+d}{-a}, and it gave us the answer is<u><em> </em></u><u><em>c=ab-d/a is the right answer.</em></u>  Hope this helps! And thank you for posting your question at here on brainly, and have a great day. -Charlie

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1 year ago
Investing is a game of chance. Suppose there is a 36% chance that a risky stock investment will end up in a total loss of your i
Sergio039 [100]

Answer: P(x ≥ 1) = 0.893

Step-by-step explanation:

We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as

P(x = r) = nCr × p^r × q^(n - r)

Where

x represent the number of successes.

p represents the probability of success.

q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.

n represents the number of trials or sample.

From the information given,

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q = 0.64

n = 5

Therefore,

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)

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3 years ago
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a_sh-v [17]
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6 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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3 years ago
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Hope this helps
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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