Answer:
$50,000, because that is the largest amount that the insurance company can cover per accident.
Explanation:
The PAP limit of 25/50/10 means that
- the maximum payable per injured person is $25,000
- the maximum payable to all injured people per accident is $50,000
- the maximum payable for property damage per accident is $10,000
Answer:
- A. The data in D3 is skewed right.
- B. Three quarters of the data values for D2 are greater than the median value for D1 .
- E. At least a quarter of the data values for D3 are less than the median value for D2 .
Explanation:
A Box Plot can be interpreted as follows;
The first point on the line is the minimum value.
The first end of the box is the First Quartile of the data range.
The next line is the Median.
The last end of the box is the Third Quartile.
The last point on the line is the maximum value.
Most of D3 lies on the right side of Median so it is skewed right.
The First Quartile of D2 is more than the Median of D1 which means that 3 quarters of D2 (first quartile to the maximum value) are greater than the median of D1.
D2's Median value is greater than the Third Quartile of D3 which means that more than just a quarter of D3 falls below D2's Median so option E is correct.
I would say the answer is that the natural rate of employment is c. when the amount of labour supplied is equal to the amount of labour demanded. In other words the supply and demand for employment are in equilibrium and there is no excess on either side.
Answer:
Rs 38640
Explanation:
Closing capital is the summary of transaction including current assets and long term prepaid less total liabilities as of close of business on the closing date
Cash Stock Adv. Salary out. creditor Capital
Opening capital 36,000 36,000
Advanced rent (300) 300
Purchase for cash (18000) 18000
Credit purchase 20000 20000
Goods sold 18000 (12000) 6000
Salary (300) 60 (360)
Drawings (3000) (3000)
32400 26000 300 60 20000 38640
Closing capital = Rs 38640
Answer:
The present value of dividend to be paid at the end of year 1, year 2, and year 3 are $2.60, $2.95, and $2.84 respectively.
Explanation:
The end of the year dividend is $3 per share.
The dividend growth rate is 20%.
The discount rate is 15%.
PV of dividend to be paid at the end of year 1
= ![\frac{end\ of\ the\ year\ dividend}{(1+discount\ rate)^n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bend%5C%20of%5C%20the%5C%20year%5C%20dividend%7D%7B%281%2Bdiscount%5C%20rate%29%5En%7D)
= ![\frac{3}{(1 + .15)^1}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3%7D%7B%281%20%2B%20.15%29%5E1%7D)
= ![\frac{3}{1.15}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3%7D%7B1.15%7D)
=$2.60
PV of dividend to be paid at the end of year 2
=![\frac{end\ of\ the\ year\ dividend}{(1 + discount\ rate)^n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bend%5C%20of%5C%20the%5C%20year%5C%20dividend%7D%7B%281%20%2B%20discount%5C%20rate%29%5En%7D)
=![\frac{3\times (1+.20)}{(1+.15)^2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3%5Ctimes%20%281%2B.20%29%7D%7B%281%2B.15%29%5E2%7D)
=![\frac{3.60}{1.322}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3.60%7D%7B1.322%7D)
=$2.72
PV of dividend to be paid at the end of year 3
=![\frac{end\ of\ the\ year\ dividend}{(1 + discount\ rate)^n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bend%5C%20of%5C%20the%5C%20year%5C%20dividend%7D%7B%281%20%2B%20discount%5C%20rate%29%5En%7D)
=![\frac{3\times (1+.20)^2}{(1+.15)^3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3%5Ctimes%20%281%2B.20%29%5E2%7D%7B%281%2B.15%29%5E3%7D)
=![\frac{4.32}{1.52}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B4.32%7D%7B1.52%7D)
=$2.84