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irina1246 [14]
4 years ago
13

En la expresion algebraica x², ¿que indica el número 2 en la base x?

Mathematics
1 answer:
tino4ka555 [31]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

En la expresión, 2 representa la cantidad de veces que multiplicas x por sí mismo.

**Lo siento si mi español es malo, el inglés es mi primer idioma.

Step-by-step explanation:

8^{2} = 8 × 8 = 64

y^2= y × y

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The function shown in the graph is shifted 4 units up to produce a
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:  D

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
The perimeter of a rectangle is 24 feet. The length is 3 feet less than twice the width. Which of the following systems is corre
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

The answer is B.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Because, 5 x 2 = 10 and 10 - 3 = 7 .

7 0
3 years ago
Can you please help with this question about exponential equations?
RSB [31]

Since t represents the number of years passed since 2005, in 2005 we have t=0, and in 2015 we have t=10. Let P_J(y),P_D(y) represent the profits of Jones and Davis, respectively, at year y.

We have

P_J(2005) = 10(0.99)^0 = 10,\quad P_J(2015) = 10(0.99)^{10}\approx 9

P_D(2005) = 8(1.01)^0 = 8,\quad P_D(2015) = 8(1.01)^{10}\approx 9

Choosing the best company somehow depends on how much time you can wait: Jones start with a higher value (10 vs 8), but it has a descending trend, because the multiplicative factor 0.99^t goes to zero as t grows.

On the other hand, Davis starts with a smaller value, but 1.01^t tends to infinity as t grows.

So, if you need an immediate result, the most valuable company is Jones, otherwise you're certain can Davis will eventually become bigger.

More precisely, we have

8\cdot 1.01^t = 10\cdot 0.99^t \iff 0.8 = \left(\dfrac{0.99}{1.01}\right)^t \iff t\approx 11

So, after 11 years, Davis will overcome Jones.

3 0
3 years ago
Prove that tan 10+tan 70'+taniou = tanio tanfo'tam 1oo.​
Galina-37 [17]

Question:

Prove that:

tan(10) + tan(70) + tan(100) = tan(10). tan(70). tan(100)

Answer:

Proved

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

tan(10) + tan(70) + tan(100) = tan(10). tan(70). tan(100)

Required

Prove

tan(10) + tan(70) + tan(100) = tan(10). tan(70). tan(100)

Subtract tan(10) from both sides

- tan(10)+tan(10) + tan(70) + tan(100) = tan(10). tan(70). tan(100) - tan(10)

tan(70) + tan(100) = tan(10). tan(70). tan(100) - tan(10)

Factorize the right hand size

tan(70) + tan(100) = -tan(10)(-tan(70). tan(100) + 1)

Rewrite as:

tan(70) + tan(100) = -tan(10)(1-tan(70). tan(100))

Divide both sides by 1-tan(70). tan(100)

\frac{tan(70) + tan(100)}{1-tan(70). tan(100)} = \frac{-tan(10)(1-tan(70). tan(100))}{1-tan(70). tan(100))}

\frac{tan(70) + tan(100)}{1-tan(70). tan(100)} = -tan(10)

In trigonometry:

tan(A + B) = \frac{tan(A) + tan(B)}{1 - tan(A)tan(B)}

So:

\frac{tan(70) + tan(100)}{1 - tan(70)tan(100)} can be expressed as: tan(70 + 100)

\frac{tan(70) + tan(100)}{1-tan(70). tan(100)} = -tan(10) gives

tan(70 + 100) = -tan(10)

tan(170) = -tan(10)

In trigonometry:

tan(180 - \theta) = -tan(\theta)

So:

tan(180 - 10) = -tan(10)

Because RHS = LHS

Then:

tan(10) + tan(70) + tan(100) = tan(10). tan(70). tan(100) has been proven

6 0
3 years ago
Find measure of angles B, E, D and C and the length of BC.
natulia [17]

Answer:

< B = 180-30-65=85°

< E = 85°

< D = 30°

< C = 65°

BC = 20/35 × 28 = 16

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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