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Annette [7]
3 years ago
15

Which of the following is a manufacturing overhead cost? A. labor cost of plant workers that can be traced accurately and easily

B. to a particular product overtime premiums paid C. to plant workers cost of materials that can be traced D. to individual products in an economically feasible manner the use of direct materials in the making of a finished good
Business
1 answer:
sweet-ann [11.9K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": to a particular product overtime premiums paid.

Explanation:

Overhead costs is an accounting term used for expenses that have to be paid, even if the business does not earn any revenue. The business would not be able to operate without paying its overhead expenses even if the expenses do not directly relate to the product or service being produced.  

Examples of <em>overhead costs are rent, utilities, office supplies, repairs and maintenance, insurance, taxes, </em>or <em>the salaries of human resources and accounting personnel</em>. <em>Overtime premiums paid to plant workers</em> fall into this category as well.

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Sheridan Company received $135000 in cash and a used computer with a fair value of $318000 from Carla Vista Co. for Sheridan Com
sammy [17]

Answer:

The gain that  Sheridan should recognize on this exchange is $135000

Explanation:

Where Exchange Transaction lacks commercial substance, the asset that is acquired is measured at the <em>Carrying Amount or Undepreciated Cost </em> of the asset given up.

The gain will then include an <em>further consideration acquired</em> on the exchange of an asset.

<u>Entries to record the exchange are as follows :</u>

Cash $135000 (debit)

New Asset at undepreciated cost $420300 (debit)

Cost of Old asset given up $420300 (credit)

Gain on exchange $135000 (credit)

Conclusion :

The gain that  Sheridan should recognize on this exchange is $135000

6 0
3 years ago
if Alexis invest $2,000 into a fund that earns 5.5% interest compounded annually, how long will it take for her investment to gr
madreJ [45]

Answer:

73 years

Explanation:

To solve this problem, we can use the formula for the annual compound interest, which is:

A=P(1+r)^t

where:

A is the final amount after time t

P is the principal

r is the rate of interest

t is the time

In this problem, we have:

P=\$2000 is the principal

r=0.055 is the interest rate (5.5%)

We want to find the time t at which the amount of money is

A = $100,000

Therefore, we can re-arrange the equation and solve for t:

(1+r)^t=\frac{A}{P}\\t=log_{1+r}(\frac{A}{P})=log_{1+0.055}(\frac{100,000}{2000})=73

So, it will take 73 years.

3 0
3 years ago
The impact of Inequality on businesses<br>​
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer: Plainly put, extreme income inequality, such as the kind found in Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia, cause economic inefficiency. The relatively wealthy tend to save a much higher proportion of their income than the poor. In order to grow economically, a society must have robust rates of consumption. However, if most of the wealth of a country is owned by a very small percentage of its population, that wealth is saved, not spent. These savings are then invested by individuals and financial institutions.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
During the RFP stage, B2B buyers:
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

The correct answer is c. invite suppliers to bid on supplying what is requested.

Explanation:

B2B sales require special attention due to the profile of your buyer.

In this type of sale, buyers have a position much more linked to decision making, so they spend more time on a detailed and critical analysis of the proposal.

The B2B buyer chooses companies that allow the creation of strong business relationships, with a guarantee of supply and deadlines.

This is because B2B negotiations demand an effort, time and investment that, in case of any inconvenience, it can be difficult to recover and find a new supplier.

7 0
3 years ago
According to the​ Break-Even EBIT​ analysis, shareholders are​ ____ off with debt when EBIT is​ _____ the​ Break-Even EBIT level
Kobotan [32]

Answer:

Answer B.

Explanation:

EBIT break even point is a situation when company does not make a profit or has loss. It is a point where earnings per share are equal to zero. It is the level of ebit equal to fixed costs for the company, like interest on the debt. If this break even point increases, this leads to the increase of financial risk. However, increase of ebit above break even point leads to net income calculated as EBIT*(1-interest expense)*(1-tax rate)-preferred dividends being higher.

3 0
3 years ago
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