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Otrada [13]
3 years ago
15

Difference between money paid to and money received from other nations in trade is called balance of trade.

Business
2 answers:
frutty [35]3 years ago
6 0

<u>Answer:</u>

Difference between money paid to and money received from other nations in trade is called balance of trade is a <u>TRUE</u> statement.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The difference between the export and the import done by the country is usually termed as the balance of trade. Even though the sum of payments and receipts is necessarily equal, in different types of transactions there will be disparities — excesses of transactions and receipts, named deficits and surpluses.

Trade balance does not include any goods (not even product import and export). For example, China, a nation where many of the globe's consumer goods are manufactured and exported, has registered a trade surplus since 1995. Because of its dependence on oil imports and consumer goods, the United States has shown a trade deficit since 1976.

Anvisha [2.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The answer above me is wrong

Difference between money paid to and money received from other nations in trade is called balance of payments

McGraw Hill Understanding Economics

"Another argument in the free trade debate involves the balance of payments—the difference between the money a country pays out to, and receives from, other nations when it engages in international trade." (505)

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Identify two employment laws which might affect<br> easyJet plc's business activities.
patriot [66]

Answer:

EasyJet Plc is the eighth largest airline in the world and the second biggest in Europe, . The business generated revenue per passenger of £58 compared with a cost per seat . The return on capital employed was just under 12% in 2017. regarding Brexit which might impact on both revenue and costs going forward.

Explanation:I dont have one  

4 0
3 years ago
11. Nadine is retiring at age 62 and expects to live to age 85. On the day she retires, she has $402,000 in her retirement savin
Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

E. $2,688.77

Explanation:

We need to calculate the PMT of an ordinary annuity at 6%

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV 402,000

time:

85 years - 62 years = 23 years of retirement

23 years  x   12 months per year = 276 months

rate: 6% annual rate we must divide over 12 months to convert into monthly: 0.06/12 = 0.005

402000 \div \frac{1-(1+0.005)^{-276} }{0.005} = C\\

C  $ 2,688.766

<em>She can withdraw 2,688.76 per month</em>

7 0
3 years ago
You would like to combine a risky stock with a beta of 1.5 with U.S. Treasury bills in such a way that the risk level of the por
Deffense [45]

Answer:

33.33%

Explanation:

Let weight of T-bill be x, therefore weight of stock will be 1-x

Portfolio = Weight of stock*Beta of stock + Weight of T-bills*Beta of T-bills

1 = (1-x)*1.5 + x*0

1 = 1.5 - 1.5x

x = 0.5/1.5

x = 0.3333

x = 33.33%

Therefore, the percentage of the portfolio invested in treasury bills is 33.33%.

5 0
3 years ago
Below is the complete list of accounts of Cobras Incorporated and the related balance at the end of March. All accounts have the
Allisa [31]

Answer:

Cobras Incorporated

Trial Balance as at March 31.

                                             Debit          Credit

Supplies                                 $1,100

Buildings                             $41,000

Cash                                      $2,100

Accounts Receivable          $2,800

Prepaid Insurance                 $1,100

Salaries Payable                                        $300

Accounts Payable                                   $1,500

Common Stock                                      $21,000

Retained Earnings                                 $14,500

Service Revenue                                    $18,100

Utilities Expense                 $2,300

Salaries Expense                $5,000

Totals                                 $55,000     $55,000

Explanation:

A Trial Balance is used to check mathematical accuracy in ledger Accounts. It represents a list of Balances : Debit and Credit extracted from the Ledger Accounts.

7 0
3 years ago
Babcock Company purchased a piece of machinery for $36,000 on January 1, 2019, and has been depreciating the machine using the s
pogonyaev

Answer:

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

Explanation:

Year  Remaining Life of machine  Depreciation fraction

1                               5                                           5/15

2                              4                                           4/15

3                              3                                           3/15

4                              2                                           2/15

5                          <u>    1     </u>                                       1/15

Total                       15  

Now here, the depreciation formula is as under:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) * Fraction value

<u>Year 2019:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 5/15  = $12,000

<u>Year 2020:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 4/15  = $9,600

<u>Year 2021:</u>

Now in this year the there is change in estimate and a switch in the use of the depreciation method, which is now straight line method. The change in estimate only includes the useful life of the asset which is 6 years from the date of purchase.

So for straight-line depreciation:

Depreciation Expense = (Cost - Salvage Value)  / Useful Life

By simply putting values, we have:

Depreciation Expense = $36,000 / 6 years = $6,000 per year

So this means, according to change in accounting policy, the excess depreciation charged must be eliminated from the previous years. The depreciation charge for the previous 2 years must be $12,000 and the excess depreciation charge is calculated as under:

Carrying value of the asset = $21,600 - $12,000  = $9,600

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

The double entry according to the US GAAP, for the excess depreciation charge in the previous years would be the waiving off of retained earnings with the excess depreciation amount calculated above.

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u></u>

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

The depreciation expense for the year 2021, would be recorded as under:

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

3 0
4 years ago
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