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Ann [662]
3 years ago
12

Panco, a U.S. entity, has a subsidiary, Sanco, located in a foreign country. Sanco's operations are concentrated in the country

in which it is located and are essentially independent of Panco. The economy of the foreign country is not highly inflationary. Sanco prepared the following shortened financial statements in its local currency, the FCU, for the fiscal year ended December 31, 2018:Statement of Net Income and FCUsComprehensive Income (20X8) (in 000)Sales 12,000COGS (4,000)Depreciation Expense (1,000)Other Expenses (3,000)Net Income 4,000Other Comprehensive Income 0Comprehensive Income 4,000Retained Earnings (20X8)Beginning R/E (end 20X7) 6,000Add: Net Income (20X8) 4,000Deduct: Dividends (20X8) (1,000)Ending Retained Earnings 9,000Balance Sheet (12/31/20X8)Cash and Account Receivable 2,000Inventory 6,000Fixed Assets 10,000Total Assets 18,000Liabilities 2,000Common Stock 7,000Retained Earnings 9,000Subtotal 18,000AOCI 0Total Liabilities + Equity 18,000The following exchange rates were available:Historic exchange rate when Sanco was established by Panco: 1 FCU = $1.200Weighted average exchange rate for 20X8:1 FCU = $1.300Spot exchange rate at date dividend declared:1 FCU = $1.290Spot exchange rate at December 31, 20X8:1 FCU = $1.310Which one of the following is the amount (in 000) of Sanco's dividends declared and paid in 20X8 in U.S. dollars?a) $1,000b) $1,290c) $1,300d) $1,310
Business
1 answer:
Arte-miy333 [17]3 years ago
8 0

$15,600 is the amount (in 000) of Sanco's sales in U.S. dollars

Explanation and Solution :

Because translations can be used to translate the financial results of Sanco presented in FCUs to U.S. dollars, transactions will be translated using the rate of exchange in effect at the time of each transaction or the weighted average exchange rate for the year.

In this scenario, the weighted average exchange rate for the duration shall be given as

1 FCU = $1,300.

The right dollar sum of revenue to Sanco will then be

12,000 FCUs x $1,300 = $15,600.

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You found your dream house. It will cost you $300000 and you will put down $30000 as a down payment. For the rest you get a 30-y
Andrews [41]

Answer:

$1,282.80

Explanation:

The PMT formula is used for this question. The attachment is shown below:

The NPER shows the time period

Given that,  

Present value = $300,000 - $30000 = $270,000

Future value = $0

Rate of interest = 4% ÷ 12 months = 0.33%

NPER = 30 years × 12 months = 360 months

The formula is shown below:

= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this, the answer is $1,282.80

5 0
4 years ago
A rotational molding operation has fixed costs of $7,000 per year and variable costs of $52 per unit. If the process is automate
Finger [1]

Answer:

Number of units required for the two operations to break even= 907 (approx)

5 0
3 years ago
Basse Corporation has 7,000 shares of common stock outstanding. It declares a $1 per share cash dividend on November 1 to stockh
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

November 1, declaration of cash dividends

  • Dr Retained Earnings account 7,000
  • Cr Dividends Payable account 7,000

December 31, distribution of cash dividends

  • Dr Dividends Payable account 7,000
  • Cr Cash account 7,000

Explanation:

The cash dividends will decrease the retained earnings account, since retained earnings is an equity account, when it decreases it has to be debited.

Dividends payable account is a liability account created when the company declared the dividends and it is cancelled when the company pays the dividends.

5 0
3 years ago
Two incinerators are being considered by a waste management company. Design A has an initial cost of $2,500,000, has annual oper
IrinaK [193]

Answer: please refer to the explanation section

Explanation:

Design A

Initial cost $2500 000

operating and maintenance cost = $800 000

Overhauls = $1250000 in 5 years

R = 5%

PV= overhaul cost/(1+r)^n + maintenance cost(1 -(1+r)^-5)/r

PV = 1250000/(1 + 0.05)^5  + 800000(1 - (1 + 0.05)^-5)/0.05

PV = 979407.71 + 3463581.34 = 4442989.05

costs to be capitalized = present value of overhaul costs = 979407. 71

Design A will be valued at = 2500000 +  979407. 71 = 347907.71

Total cost of Choosing Design A = 979407.71 + 3463581.34 + 2500000

Total cost of Choosing Design A = 6942989.05

Design B

initial cost = $5750000

Operating and Maintenance = $600000

Overhauls = $3000000 in 10 years

PV= overhaul cost/(1+r)^n + maintenance cost(1 -(1+r)^-5)/r

PV = 3000000/(1 + 0.05)^10  + 600000(1 - (1 + 0.05)^-10)/0.05

PV = 1841739.76 + 4633040.96 = 6474780.72

Cost to be capitalized = overhaul cost = 1841739.76

Design B will be value at = 1841739.76 + 5750000 = 7591739.76

Total cost of costs Design B = 1841739.76 + 5750000 + 4633040.96

Total cost of costs Design B = 12224780.72

Design B involves more costs than Design A. Present value for total cost for choosing Design B is Higher than the present value for Total costs of choosing Design A

Choose Design A

3 0
3 years ago
Sandpiper Company reported the following year-end amounts: Beginning Inventory $22,950 Net Cost of Purchases 101,250 Ending Inve
Andrej [43]

Answer:

Closing Inventory = $31050

Explanation:

The cost of goods sold is the cost of the inventory that the business sells during a period of time. The cost of goods sold is calculated as follows,

Cost of Goods Sold = Opening Inventory + Purchases - Closing Inventory

As we already have the values for Opening inventory, net cost of purchases and the cost of goods sold, we can input these values in the above formula to calculate the cost of closing inventory.

93150 = 22950 + 101250 - Closing Inventory

93150 = 124200 - Closing Inventory

Closing Inventory = 124200 - 93150

Closing Inventory = $31050

8 0
4 years ago
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