Answer:
43.01
Step-by-step explanation:
First, it would help to put 46 and 2/3 into an improper fraction: 140/3.
Then, since this is a percent, we put that improper fraction over 100: (140/3)/100 = 140/300.
Finally, we multiply this answer by 28 since "of" means multiply:
(140/300) * 28 = 196/15 = 13 1/15
Answer:
0.32, 0.45, 0.76.
Step-by-step explanation:
so first you would use your < >,= signs and compare all of them until you have eliminated ALL but one (so 0.91<0.98 this is because 0.98 is close to 1 whole than 0.91) and you would continue this explanation for so on
Answer: No; Most students have a curfew of 9 pm or earlier
Using the expected value, it is found that the mean of the distribution equals $0.1.
- The expected value, which is the mean of the distribution, is given by <u>each outcome multiplied by it's probability</u>.
The probabilities of <u>each outcome</u> are:
- .0000001 probability of earning $1,000,000.
- .9999999 probability of earning $0.
Thus, the mean is given by:
Thus showing that the expected value is $0.1.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24855677
