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AlladinOne [14]
3 years ago
8

When analyzing AE, it is important to know the factors that determine C, Ip, G and NX because those factors A. influence the lev

el of AE and help us understand the GDP in the economy. B. show us how macroeconomic equilibrium is determined in the AE model. C. helps us understand how AE and real GDP are related. D. All of the above.
Business
1 answer:
postnew [5]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D. All of the above.

Explanation:

In the Aggregate Expenditure model or approach to GDP, GDP is calculated using the following formula:

GDP = C + I + G + NX (X-M)

Where:

  • C = consumption
  • I = Investment
  • G = Government spending
  • NX = Net exports

As can be seen, each of the elements of the equation are necessary to understand (calculate) GDP by the AE approach. Each element is also important to show how macroeconomic equilibrium is reached. Thus, the correct answer is D.

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On the basis of this information, what were total maintenance costs when the company experienced 23,000 machine hours of activit
spayn [35]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the total cost for each activity level:</u>

High activity level= 27,000*27.3= $737,100

Low activity level= 23,000*34.3= $788,900

<u>Now, using the high-low method, we can determine the variable and fixed costs:</u>

Variable cost per unit= (Highest activity cost - Lowest activity cost)/ (Highest activity units - Lowest activity units)

Variable cost per unit= (788,900 - 737,100) / (27,000 - 23,000)

Variable cost per unit= $12.95 per machine-hour

Fixed costs= Highest activity cost - (Variable cost per unit * HAU)

Fixed costs= 788,900 - (12.95*27,000)

Fixed costs= $439,250

Fixed costs= LAC - (Variable cost per unit* LAU)

Fixed costs= 737,100 - (12.95*23,000)

Fixed costs= $439,250

<u>Finally, for 25,000 hours:</u>

Total cost= 439,250 + 12.95*2,5000

Total cost= $763,000

8 0
3 years ago
When there is allocative efficiency in a market, the buyers' maximum willingness to pay for the last unit traded is equal to the
VashaNatasha [74]

<em>That answer is A. True</em>

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A number of years ago, Lee acquired a 20% interest in the BlueSky Partnership for $60,000. The partnership was profitable throug
wel

Answer:

Explanation:

To calculate the loss in 2015:

$400,000*20% = $80,000

To calculate passive income in 2016:

200,000*20% = $40,000

At risk amount is $120,000 - $80,000(loss) + $40,000(income) = $80,000

In 2016 $40,000 of $80,000 suspended loss may be deducted against the passive income: $80,000 - $40,000 [suspended loss]

5 0
3 years ago
Organizations can achieve a competitive advantage by using their resources to: Group of answer choices duplicate the value a com
noname [10]

Organizations can achieve a competitive advantage by using their resources to "provide greater value for customers than competitors can".

<u>Option: D</u>

<u>Explanation:</u>

For any organization or any business oriented firm their main target should be only consumers or audience, for whom the firm is actually working to provide any kind of goods and services as per their need and demand. Like an ice-cream firm is well aware about the need of flavor and taste its audience need, but also competitors are pressurizing them to lower or higher the product price, thus inspite of concerning what opponent need better to target audience, who is really a source of good and handsome profit.

5 0
4 years ago
Ortfolio Expected Return Beta
soldi70 [24.7K]

Question (in proper order)

If the simple CAPM is valid and all portfolios are priced correctly, which of the situations below is possible? Consider each situation independently, and assume the risk-free rate is 5%.

A)  

Portfolio            Expected  Return Beta

A                          11​ %                                 1.1​  

Market                 11​ %                                 1.0​

B)  

Portfolio          Expected  Return          Standard Deviation

A           14​ %                 11​ %

Market            9​ %                             19​ %

C)  

Portfolio          Expected Return          Beta

A                      14​ %                            1.1​  

Market             9​ %                            1.0​

D)

Portfolio          Expected  Return          Beta

A                      17.6​ %                             2.1​  

Market             11​ %                             1.0

​Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Answer and Explanation:

A) As Per CAPM

Expected Return = Risk free rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk free Rate)

                            = 5%                   + 1.1    ×  (11%                   - 5%)

                            = 11.60%

(Portfolio is not correctly Priced)

B) Standard Deviation alone cannot determine expected return using CAPM

C) As Per CAPM

Expected Return = Risk free rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk free Rate)        

                            = 5% + 1.1 × (9% - 5%) = 9.40%

(Portfolio is not correctly Priced)

D) As Per CAPM

Expected Return = Risk free rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk free Rate)

                            = 5% + 2.1 × (11% - 5%) = 17.60%

Required Rate and Expected Return of Portfolio are Same

(Portfolio is correctly Priced)

Option D is correct option

7 0
3 years ago
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