The income elasticity of real money demand d. 3/4
Increase in real money demand = Increase in nominal money demand - Increase in inflation = 4% - 1% = 3%
Income elasticity of real money demand = % increase in real money demand / % increase in real income
= 3% / 4%
= 3/4
Income elasticity of demand is a monetary measure of how responsive the amount of demand for a very good or provider is to trade-in earnings. The formulation for calculating earnings elasticity of demand is the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by using the percent change in earnings.
In economics, the profits elasticity of call for is the responsivenesses of the quantity demanded an amazing to an alternate in patron profits. It is measured because of the ratio of the share exchange in the amount demanded to the proportion exchange in profits.
If the earnings elasticity of call for is more than 1, the best or carrier is taken into consideration a luxury and profits elastic. An amazing provider that has an earnings elasticity of call for between zero and 1 is considered an ordinary correct and income inelastic.
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Answer:
Explanation:
Long-term Investment cost = $25
Long-term Investment sales value = $54
Gain from Long-term Investment = $(54-25) = $29
Land cost = $53
Land sales value = $28
Loss from sale of Land = $(28-53) = -$25
Cash Dividend paid = $22
Total change in Assets = $(29-25) = $4
Total change in Equity = -$22
Answer:
Yes it should as the net present value at the firm WACC is positive $ 4,156.54
Explanation:
we are given with the after-tax cost for the machine and after-tax cost of the labor cost savings the new machine will provide
So we should check if the present value of the savings is greater or equal than the machine cost:
C $ 8,000
time 10 years
rate=WACC= 0.1
PV $49,156.5368
Net present value:
inflow - cost
49,156.54 - 45,000 = 4,156.54
Answer:
a. 10.04%
b. $82.78
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
a. Expected rate of return or market capitalization = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 5% + 0.72 × (12% - 5%)
= 5% + 0.72 × 7%
= 5% + 5.04%
= 10.04%
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium and the same is applied.
b. Now the intrinsic value would be
= Expected dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
= $5 ÷ (10.04% - 4%)
= $5 ÷ 6.04%
= $82.78
Answer:
Fee based fund is the correct answer to the given question
Explanation:
In the fee based funds exercise the money is charged directly to customers.The Fee-Based Funds is imposing the charge of sales to the customer .The Fee-based funds consultants could charge an extra payment of fixed price according to the company policy .
- When the company sells the mutual fund in a fee-based consideration individuals will buy the bond fund Series of the F units.
- All the other options are not related to imposing the sales charge that's why they are incorrect option .
