Question

Please assist me in 6-30​

Answer 1

Answer:

Yes to both.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is true that

$\dfrac{x}{y}=1 \iff x=y$

In fact, if you know that x/y=1, just multiply both sides by y to get x=y. On the other hand, if you know that x=y (and they are not zero), you can divide both sides by y to get x/y=1.

Since the two expressions are equivalent, you can always use Phil's or Don's expression, at will.