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weqwewe [10]
3 years ago
10

The designated market value:a. is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable value le

ss a normal profit margin.b. should always be equal to net realizable value.c. may sometimes exceed net realizable value.d. should always be equal to net realizable value less a normal profit margin.
Business
1 answer:
eduard3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable value less a normal profit margin.

Explanation:

As we know that inventory will be recorded at cost or market value whichever is lower. But in the given case, the replacement cost would be recorded at higher values and lesser values. Higher values represent the Net realizable value whereas the lesser values represent the net realizable value less than the normal profit margin.

And if the replacement cost lies in this range than it represents the designated market value.  

Hence, option a is correct.

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A new generation of lunch trucks in cities such as New York, San Francisco, and Los Angeles is serving high-end fare such as ham
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The case stated in question statement does not refer to focused differentiation strategy rather it is an example of Focused cost leadership strategy.

Focused cost leadership strategy is one that is competes on price margins targeting a narrow market and setting the price lower than other already existing competitors.

While, on the other end a focused differentiation strategy targets acquiring market by introducing some different product.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If manufacturing overhead has been underallocated during the period, then which of the following is true?(a) the jobs produced d
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

The correct answer is B: the jobs produced during the period have been under-costed

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

If manufacturing overhead has been under-allocated during the period, then which of the following is true?

(a) the jobs produced during the period have been over-costed

(b) the jobs produced during the period have been under-costed

(c) the jobs produced during the period have been costed correctly

(d) none of the above

When manufacturing overhead has been under-allocated means that the actual costs incurred where superior that the estimated cost for the period.

7 0
3 years ago
Anson Jackson Court Company (AJC) The Anson Jackson Court Company (AJC) currently has $200,000 market value (and book value) of
ddd [48]

Answer:

7.38%

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what would be AJC's new WACC and total value

Using this formula

WACC and total value=(Equity)(Required rate of return on equity)+(Debt)(1-Tax rate)(Required rate of return on debt)

Let plug in the formula

WACC and total value=(0.6)(0.095)+(0.4)(1-0.4)(0.07)

WACC and total value=0.057+0.0168

WACC and total value=0.0738*100

WACC and total value=7.38%

Therefore would be AJC's new WACC and total value is 7.38%

5 0
2 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
A service is any intangible offering that involves a deed is called
12345 [234]

Answer:

Service

Explanation:

A service is any intangible offering that involves a deed, performance, or effort that cannot be physically possessed by the service takers.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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