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Zina [86]
3 years ago
15

Stubbs Company uses the perpetual inventory method. On January 1, Year 1, Stubbs purchased 400 units of inventory that cost $8.0

0 each. On January 10, Year 1, the company purchased an additional 600 units of inventory that cost $9.00 each. If Stubbs uses a weighted average cost flow method and sells 700 units of inventory for $16.00 each, the amount of gross margin reported on the income statement will be:
A. $5,180.
B. $5,250.
C. $5,000.
D. $6,020.

Business
1 answer:
Sonja [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A. USD 5,180/-

Explanation:

In the actual method of inventory valuation, the inventory reaming and the COGS (Cost Of Goods Sold) is measured after each purchase or sale of a  transaction. So the COGS and the remaining value of the inventory is known all the time.

Formula:

  • Gross margin is equal to Sales minus COGS

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Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

It's necessary to remember that the value of fixed-rate bonds is inversely proportional to the level of interest rates. The value of the bond decreases as interest rates rise; moreover, the value of the bond rises as interest rates fall. A Bond with a lower coupon sells for less than its face value. When the going rate of interest is higher than the coupon rate, this condition arises. The value of the asset would increase over time. A higher coupon bond is one that sells for a higher price than its face value. When the going rate of interest is lower than the coupon rate, this condition arises. Its value will gradually decrease until it reaches its maturity value. A par value bond that sells at par, with a coupon rate equal to the current interest rate. The coupon is usually set at the going market rate on the day the bond is sold, so it sells at par at first.

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Just plug in the values and you will get:

Bond Price = 60 x 7.02 + 508.35

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Similarly,

Data:

C = Coupon Payments = $60 (Par Value x Coupon Rate)

n = number of years = 10

i = market rate or required yield = 7% = 0.007

K = number of coupon payments in 1 year = 2

P = value at maturity or par value = 1000

Present value of ordinary annuity formula:  

Bond Price = C/k * [\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  } }{\frac{i}{k} } ] + \frac{P}{(1 + \frac{i}{k})^{nk}  }

Just plug in the values and you will get:  

Bond Price = 30 x 14.21 + 502.57

Bond Price = 426.37 + 502.57

Bond Price = $928.94

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