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ycow [4]
3 years ago
8

"Consider the futures contract written on the S&P 500 index and maturing in one year. The interest rate is 3%, and the futur

e value of dividends expected to be paid over the next year is $35. The current index level is 2,000. Assume that you can short sell the S&P index. a. Suppose the expected rate of return on the market is 8%. What is the expected level of the index in one year? b. What is the theoretical no-arbitrage price for a 1-year futures contract on the S&P 500 stock index? c. Suppose the actual futures price is 2,012. Is there an arbitrage opportunity here? If so, how would you exploit it?"
Business
1 answer:
Alex_Xolod [135]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. $2125

b. $2025

c. there is an arbitrage opportunity.

Explanation:

a. St = So x (1+ rm)-D

So = current index price = 2000

rm = return on market = 8%

D = dividends = $35

inserting into the formula:

2000x(1+0.08)-35

= $2125

b.

So x (1+rf)-D

rf = 3%

2000 x (1+0.03)-35

= $2025

c. yes there is an arbitrage opportunity. the investor should go into contract with an exercise price of 2125dollars then short sell asset in future and after this, buy back after at future market price. since actual future price is 2012 and price expected is 2125.

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4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Runaround Corporation sells running shoes and during January they ran production machines for 23,000 hours total and incurred $
viva [34]

Answer:

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Explanation:

To find the variable maintenance cost per machine hour we must divide the total amount spent in maintenance costs by the total amount of production hours.

Since both production hours and maintenance cost vary so much, we must high-low method:

variable maintenance cost = (highest maintenance cost - lowest maintenance cost) / (highest machine hours - lowest machine hours)  =

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3 0
4 years ago
Rick eats only french fries and burgers at his office cafeteria. His weekly lunch budget is $48. Each burger costs $6 and each o
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

The correct answer is 16 utils.

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7 0
3 years ago
Overhead Applied to Jobs, Departmental Overhead Rates Xania Inc. uses a normal job-order costing system. Currently, a plantwide
sveta [45]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Department A Department B

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Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (120,000 + 80,000) / (16,000 + 5,800)= $9.17 per machine hour

B) We need to use the same formula, but for each department:

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Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 120,000/16,000= $7.5 per machine hour

Department B:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 80,000/5,800= $13.79 per machine hour

7 0
3 years ago
Sheffield Corp. had credit sales of $1696000. The beginning accounts receivable balance was $175000 and the ending accounts rece
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Answer:

$1,574,000

Explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
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