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Otrada [13]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following is most likely the next step in the series?

Mathematics
2 answers:
MArishka [77]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

dem82 [27]3 years ago
6 0
A.
This is because in each circle the lines increase by one, so from the triangle (3 lines) to the rectangle (4 lines) it only makes sense to put a pentagon (5 lines)
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Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
Irene is going to read a 216-page book.
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

4 days

Step-by-step explanation:

216/3 = 72

72/18 = 4

8 0
3 years ago
The numbers of teams remaining in each round of a single-elimination tennis tournament represent a geometric sequence where an i
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

a_n = 128\bigg(\dfrac{1}{2}\bigg)^{n-1}

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following in the question:

The numbers of teams remaining in each round follows a geometric sequence.

Let a be the first the of the geometric sequence and r be the common ration.

The n^{th} term of geometric sequence is given by:

a_n = ar^{n-1}

a_4 = 16 = ar^3\\a_6 = 4 = ar^5

Dividing the two equations, we get,

\dfrac{16}{4} = \dfrac{ar^3}{ar^5}\\\\4}=\dfrac{1}{r^2}\\\\\Rightarrow r^2 = \dfrac{1}{4}\\\Rightarrow r = \dfrac{1}{2}

the first term can be calculated as:

16=a(\dfrac{1}{2})^3\\\\a = 16\times 6\\a = 128

Thus, the required geometric sequence is

a_n = 128\bigg(\dfrac{1}{2}\bigg)^{n-1}

4 0
3 years ago
A. 8/17<br> B. 15/17<br> C. 15/8<br> D. 8/15
Vlada [557]

Answer:

A)  8/17

Step-by-step explanation:

cos = adj/hyp

In this problem the unknown angle has a hypotenuse pf 17, 15 as opposite, and 8 as adjacent

8 0
2 years ago
Simpliftly(-8.5)(-5)( -2)<br><br>how do i simplify it​
Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

-85

Step-by-step explanation:

(-8.5)(-5)(-2)

Multiply

(42.5)(-2)

-85

Hope this helps :)

7 0
3 years ago
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