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Katyanochek1 [597]
2 years ago
14

Division ABC has $750,000 invested in assets and earned $200,000 in income. Division XYZ has $800,000 invested in assets and ear

ned $210,000 in income. The company's target rate is 10%. Which division has the highest residual income
Business
1 answer:
Rus_ich [418]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Division XYZ has the highest residual income

Explanation:

Residual income is the excess of the controllable profit over the opportunity cost of capital invested.

It is used to appraise and evaluate the performance of separate divisions of the same company where different managers are responsible for each

It is computed as follows:

Residual income = Controllable profit - (cost of capital× operating assets)

<em>Division ABC</em>

Residual income = 200,000 - (10%×750,000) = $125,000

Residual income= $125,000

<em />

<em>Division XYZ</em>

Residual income = 210,000 - (10% ×800,000) = $130 ,000

Residual income= $130,000

Division XYZ has a higher residual income of $130,000 compared to the $125,000 of division ABC. A difference of $5,000 higher.

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2 years ago
In the financial industry, "securitization" refers to
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<span>In the financial industry, "securitization" refers to bundling debt, such as loans, bonds and mortgages into securities. In finance, a security is a tradable asset. They are debt securities such as bonds and then there are equity securities such as stocks. Bundling debt keeps everything organized and streamlined for people to know what they need to pay down. </span>

3 0
3 years ago
A flexible budget for 15,000 hours revealed variable manufacturing overhead of $90,000 and fixed manufacturing overhead of $120,
Ket [755]

Answer:

B. $270,000.

Explanation:

The computation of the total overhead cost is shown below:

But before that first we have to find out the variable overhead per hour which is

= $90,000 ÷ 15,000

= $6 per hour

Now

Variable overhead for 25,000 hours is

= $6 per hour × 25,000

= $150,000

So,

Total overhead cost is  

= Variable overhead for 25,000 hours + Fixed overhead cost

= $150,000 + $120,000

= $270,000

hence, the correct option is B. $270,000

6 0
3 years ago
During a certain six-year period, the consumer price index (CPI) increased by 50%, but during the next sis-year period, it incre
liberstina [14]

Answer:

D. Deflation

Explanation:

"Consumer Price Index" <em>(CPI)</em> measures the changes in the weighted average of prices of a market basket (consisting of consumer goods and services). It tells the<u> cost of living for every consumer. </u>

"Inflation" refers to the sustained increase of prices of goods and services while "deflation" refers to the sustained decrease of prices of goods and services.

In the situation above, the CPI is considered lower than before, thus <u>deflation</u> must have occurred during the second six-year period. It shows a <u>negative inflation rate.</u>

So, this explains the answer.

7 0
3 years ago
Cost of Debt KatyDid Clothes has a $150 million (face value) 30-year bond issue selling for 104 percent of par that carries a co
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

the annual pre-tax cost of debt is 10.56%

Explanation:

the beore-tax component cost of debt will be the actual market rate of the bonds, as they offer an interest rate of 11% but are selling at 104 points not at par thus, there is a difference between the rates.

We solve for the rate which makes the coupon and maturity 104

with excel or a financial calculator

PV of the coupon payment

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 5.500 (100 x 11%/2)

time 60 (30 years x 2 payment per year)

rate <em>0.052787474</em>

5.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0527874736258532)^{-60} }{0.0527874736258532} = PV\\

PV $99.4338

PV of the maturity

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   100.00

time   60.00

rate  <em>0.052787474</em>

\frac{100}{(1 + 0.0527874736258532)^{60} } = PV  

PV   4.57

<em><u>Adding both we should get 104 which is the amount the bonds is selling:</u></em>

PV coupon $99.4338 + PV maturity  $4.5662 = $104.0000

The rate is generated using goal seek or wiht a financial calculator.

This rate is a semiannual rate, so we multiply by 2 to get the annual cost of debt:

0.052787474 x 2 = 0.105574947

The cost of debt for the firm is 10.56%

5 0
2 years ago
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