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Ne4ueva [31]
3 years ago
5

Is the following true for all positive values of a and b: If a^2>b^2, then a>b

Mathematics
2 answers:
Dominik [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Yes, that is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

a would always have to be greater than b since you're just multiplying each variable by itself.

zysi [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2>b^2 means a^2-b^2>0.

Factoring the left hand side gives me:

(a-b)(a+b)>0

Since a,b are positive then a+b is positive so dividing both sides by this will not effect the direction of the inequality:

a-b>0

Adding b on both sides gives:

a>b

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galina1969 [7]

Answer:

∠1 ≅ ∠2 ⇒ proved down

Step-by-step explanation:

#12

In the given figure

∵ LJ // WK

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∴ ∠1 ≅ ∠KWP ⇒ (1)

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