Answer:
It is more profitable to continue processing.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A company has inventory that cost $50,000. Its scrap value is $65,000. The inventory could be sold for $150,000 if manufactured further at an additional cost of $80,000.
Sell for scrap= 65,000 - 50,000= 15,000
Continue processing= 150,000 - 80,000 - 50,000= 20,000
The person who receives financial protection from a life insurance plan is called a Beneficiary
Answer:
Current Ratio= Current Assets/ Current Liabilities
Explanation:
Current Ratio= Current Assets/ Current Liabilities
The current ratio is an important measure of a company's ability to pay its short term obligations. It is defined as current assets divided by current liabilities.
Current assets are cash and other resources that are expected to be sold or used within one year or the company's operating cycle , whichever is longer. Examples are cash, short term investments , accounts receivable, short term notes receivable, goods for sale ( called merchandise or inventory) and prepaid expenses. Prepaid expenses are usually listed last because they will not be converted to cash ( instead they are used).
Current liabilities are obligations due to be paid or settled within one year of operating cycle, whichever is longer. they are usually settled by paying out current assets such as cash . Current liabilities often include accounts payable , notes payable, wages payable, taxes payable, interest payable and unearned revenues. Also any portion of a long term liability due to be paid within one year or the operating cycle whichever is longer is a current liability.
Answer:
Option 1 is more convenient.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The annual salary is $100,000. You are offered two options for a severance package. Option 1 pays you 6 months' salary now. Option 2 pays you and your heirs $6,000 per year forever
The present value of option 1 is:
PV= 6*100,000= $600,000
To calculate the present value of option 2 we need to use the present value formula of a perpetual annuity:
PV= Cash flow/i
PV= 6,000/0.11= $54,545
There is no doubt that option 1 is better.
Answer:
Declaration date:
Dr retained earnings $26400
Cr dividends payable $26400
Payment date:
Dr dividends payable $26400
Cr Cash $26400
Explanation:
Total dividend declared is the number of shares multiplied by cash dividend per share
total dividend=$3*8,800=$26400
On the record date no entries are required since record date, is just about verifying the bonafide shareholders.
On declaration date,dividends payable would be credited with $26,400 while retained earnings is debited.
On payment date,dividends payable is debited and cash credited