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poizon [28]
2 years ago
8

How many times does 3 go into 136 mixed fraction

Mathematics
1 answer:
lys-0071 [83]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

14 times

Step-by-step explanation:

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Here is a linear equation: y = 10+ 1. Are (1,1.5) and (12, 4) solutions to the equation? Select the correct choice.​
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

[see below]

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming that the equation is y = 10x + 1

(12, 4)

4 = 10(12) + 1

4 = 120 + 1

4 ≠ 121

(12, 4) is not a solution.

(1, 1.5)

1.5 = 10(1) + 1

1.5 = 10 + 1

1.5 ≠ 1

They are not solutions to the equation.

Hope this helps.

7 0
2 years ago
Adding which terms to 3x2y would result in a monomial? Check all that apply.
kkurt [141]
 the answers are -12x^2 and 4x^2y. hopefully it helps and i just got it right.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ms. Franco has 64 pencils and 48
Arada [10]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

64=1,2,4,8,<u>16</u>,32,64

48=1,2,3,4,6,8,12,<u>16</u>,24,48

6 0
3 years ago
On the 40th birthday, Mr. Ramos decided to buy a pension plan for himself. This plan will allow him to claim
Mama L [17]

Answer:

The amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Calculation of present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday

The present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV60 = Q * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = ?

Q = quarterly claim = P10,000

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters = number of years * Number of quarters in a year = 5 * 4 = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1), we have:

PV60 =  P10,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.02))^20) / 0.02)

PV60 = P10,000 * 16.3514333445971

PV60 = P163,514.33  

Step 2: Calculation of one-time payment on his 40th birthday

The one-time payment can be calculated using the formula the following formula:

PV = PV60 / (1 + r)^n ........................ (2)

Where;

PV = Present value or One-time payment = ?

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = P163,514.33

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters from 40th to 3 months after his 60th birthday = (number of years * Number of quarters in a year) + One quarter = (20 * 4) + 1 = 81

Substitute the values into equation (2), we have:

PV = P163,514.33 / (1 + 0.02)^81 = P32,880.77

Therefore, the amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

7 0
3 years ago
WORTH 30 : can you please help me with my homework questions 14-18
goldenfox [79]

If this helps you please make it brainliest.

14. She has 12 possible choices.

15. $96

16. I don’t know about this one, sorry.

I7. 4/7

18. 1/3

Hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
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