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grandymaker [24]
2 years ago
5

Economists use real gdp per capita to measure economic growth: even though nominal gnp per capita is a far superior measure of e

conomic growth. because poor nations have a large population and the population of richer nations is declining. because it is the inflation-adjusted value of a country's production of goods and services corrected for the change in a country's population. because it ignores the effect of price changes. 2. the best available measure of the standard of living in a country is: nominal gdp per capita. the unemployment rate. real gdp per capita. the growth rate of productivity. 3. if a country has a population of 1,000, an area of 100 square miles, and a gdp of $5 million, then its gdp per capita is: $5 million. $500. $50,000. $5,000. 4. if technology improves, then it takes more inputs to produce the same output as the last period.
a. True
b. False
Business
1 answer:
denis23 [38]2 years ago
7 0
1. Economists use real GDP as a measure of living standards as it eliminates the effects of inflation by using the price index of the base period over the current period, which is also called the GDP deflator.

2. Real GDP per capital. Reason explained above.

3. 5million dollars divided by 100, therefore it would be 5000.

4. False. With the advancement of technology, capital becomes more productive and efficient, meaning they produce more output using the same amount of input.
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Piedmont Company segments its business into two regions—North and South. The company prepared the contribution format segmented
pochemuha

Answer:

BEP Company 425,000

BEP North        200,000

BEP South        100,000

Explanation:

The formula for bEP (break even point)

\frac{Fixed\:Cost}{Contribution \:Margin \:Ratio} = Break\: Even\: Point_{dollars}

<u>Where:</u>

\frac{Contribution \: Margin}{Sales \: Revenue} = Contribution \: Margin \: Ratio

We neeed to calculate the Contribution Margin Ratio before starting with the BEP

North CMR 120,000/400,000 = 0.3

South CMR 120,000/200,000 = 0.6

Company    240,000/600,000 = 0.4

Now we calculate the BEP in dollars

\frac{Fixed\:Cost}{Contribution \:Margin \:Ratio} = Break\: Even\: Point_{dollars}

<u>North </u>60,000/0.3 = 200,000

<u>South</u> 60,000/0.6 = 100, 000

<u>Company for the company we add segment fixed cost and the common fixed cost</u>

segment fixed cost 120, 000

common fixed csot   50, 000

total fixed cost         170, 000

170,000/0.4 = 425,000

6 0
3 years ago
Joe reconciles his checking account check register to the penny every month with the bank’s statement. After accurately recordin
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

Adjusted balance: 1,801 dollars

Explanation:

Bank statement balance:   1,921

outstanding checks            (300)

bank mistake                     <u>   180  </u>

adjusted bank balance      1,801

Cash account balance:      1,900

service charge                       (25)

Interest earned                          1

car insurance expense       <u>   (75)</u>

Adjusted Balance:               1,801

We adjust each party for mistake and unknow information.

The bank made a mistake and is unaware of the outstanding checks

Joe didn't know about the insurance amount, the service charge nor the interest thus, it need to record and adjust for this value.

5 0
3 years ago
For each item below, indicate whether a debit or credit applies.
Mandarinka [93]

Answer and Explanation:

The indication of each transaction is as follows

a. Note payable contains credit balance so if there is decrease so it would be shown on the debit side

b. Dividend contains debit balance so if there is an increase so it would be shown on the debit side

c.  Common stock contains credit balance so if there is an increase so it would be shown on the credit side

d. Unearned rent revenue contains credit balance so if there is an increase so it would be shown on the credit side

e. Interest payable contains credit balance so if there is decrease so it would be shown on the debit side

f.  Prepaid insurance contains debit balance so if there is an increase so it would be shown on the debit side

g. Expense contains debit balance so if there is an decrease so it would be shown on the credit side

h.  Supplies contains debit balance so if there is an decrease so it would be shown on the credit side

i. Revenue contains credit balance so if there is an increase so it would be shown on the credit side

j. Account receivable contains debit balance so if there is an decrease so it would be shown on the credit side

8 0
3 years ago
The current rates are: (1) Spot exchange rate: $2.00/£; (2) 90-day USD denominated bonds: 2% (8% annual); (3) 90-day UK pound de
Sedaia [141]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

Assume US Investor need 1000 Pound after 90 days:

Option 1: Forward Option:1000 pound = 1000 multiply with 1.98 = $1980

<u> Option 2: Invest in UK: </u>

Need 1000 pound after 90 days

so, Invest in UK pound today 1000 divide by 1.04= 961.5385

to get 961.5385 today he need to pay = 961.5385 multiply with  $2 ( Current Spot Rate)

= $1923.077

<u> Option 3 : Invest in US: </u>

Need 1000 Pound after 90 days

so forward Exchange rate 1.98 he need 1000 pound* 1.98 = 1980 $ after 90 days

so invest today 1980/1.02 = $1941.176

<u> Advise: Option 2 is best , Invest in UK Bonds </u>

7 0
3 years ago
the arrangements between buyer and seller as to when payments for merchandise are to be made are called
olganol [36]

Gimme some point son
6 0
2 years ago
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