Answer:
Cost of goods available for sale must be allocated at the end of the period between ending inventory and cost of goods sold.
Explanation:
Cost of goods available for sale can be described as the <u>maximum amount</u> of inventory, stock, or goods that is possible for a firm to sell during an accounting period. It is the maximum amount because it is not possible for a firm to sell more than the cost of goods available for sale.
The cost of goods available for sale is obtained by adding beginning inventory and net purchases during an accounting period. This can be stated as follows:
COGAFS = BI + NP ............................... (1)
Where;
COGAFS = Cost of goods available for sale
BI = Beginning inventory
NP = Net purchases
At the end of an accounting period, ending inventory is deducted from the cost of goods available for sale to obtain cost of goods sold as follows:
COGS = COGAFS - EI ............................ (2)
Where;
COGS = Cost of goods sold
COGAFS = Cost of goods available for sale
EI = Ending inventory
Rearranging equation (2) and solve for COGAFS, we have:
COGFAS = COGS + EI ........................... (3)
Equation (3) therefore implies that the correct option is "cost of goods available for sale must be allocated at the end of the period between ending inventory and cost of goods sold".
Answer:
$320,000
Explanation:
if allocated overhead was $95,100 and actual overhead was $120,500, then overhead costs were under allocated by $25,400 (= $120,500 - $95,100) and that must be added to cost of goods sold in order to determine the actual gross profit.
total sales revenue = $725,700
<u>total COGS = $380,300 + $25,400 = ($405,700)</u>
gross profit = $320,000
Given :
Stand alone price of product B = $100
Price of the combined product = $120
To Find :
Stand alone price of product A
Solution :
Now,
Stand alone price of Product A = 120 - 100 = $20
The allocation ration for the product A and B =
<u>Stand alone price of product A</u>
Stand alone price of product B
<u> </u><u> </u><u>20</u><u> </u><u> </u> = 1:5
100
Allocated to the performance obligation for delivering product A =
$120 x <u> </u><u> </u><u>1</u><u> </u><u> </u><u> </u>
1+6
$17.1
So the answer is $ 17.1
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Checkable deposits are classified as money because , They can be readily used in purchasing goods and paying debts.Choice( A)
Explanation:
Any demand deposit account against which, one can write a check or a draft is called checkable deposit. It is mainly used when a person has to withdraw money, at a short notice and he can do so, without giving any prior notice to the bank.
These deposits help in immediate access to cash. As these deposits are available easily , they are considered to be assets. .
Its an asset for the person who withdraws, as he can withdraw anytime without notice. It is a liability to the bank as the bank has to pay it, whenever the customer asks for it.
As these checkable deposits are easily available, they can be readily used in purchasing goods and paying debts.
Answer:
The job in New York should offer $65,625.
Explanation:
Andrew is offered a job in Little Rock, where the CPI is 80, and a job in New York, where the CPI is 125.
Andrew's job offer in Little Rock is $42,000.
To represent the same purchasing power salary in New York should be
= 
= 
= $65,625
