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TiliK225 [7]
3 years ago
9

Once we enter the region of diminishing returns,

Business
1 answer:
Nimfa-mama [501]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The law of diminishing returns assumes that there won't be any change in the technique of production and if the production technique changes then the efficiency of the production would increase. This law is applicable only when the method of technology remains unchanged. The law is applicable only in the short run because the supply of many factors can't be increased in a short period. The units of variable factors are also considered to be homogeneous.

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Hormel offers its food distributors a discount of 15 percent for payment within 10 days on orders of all Jiffy brand products. H
Feliz [49]

Hormel is giving its customers a cash discount.

<h3>What is cash discount?</h3>

Cash discount is the discount a seller give to a buyer by reducing the amount the buyer was supposed to pay because the buyer make his payment earlier.

Based on the given scenario Hormel offers is offering its  food distributors a discount of 15 percent if the distributor paid within the stipulated time or period of  10 days.

Inconclusion Hormel is giving its customers a cash discount.

Learn more about cash discount here:brainly.com/question/14883253

4 0
2 years ago
The following inventory valuation errors have been discovered for Knox Corporation:
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

Income +/- inventory adjustment

2015:   138,000 - 23,000 = 115,000

2016:  254,000 + 61,000 = 315,000

2017:   168,000 + 17,000 = 185,000

Explanation:

<u>Inventory Identity:</u>

Beginning + Purchases = Ending + COGS

As the mistake is on the right side it compensates by the other component which is COGS

<u><em>When the inventory is overstated</em></u> this means COGS is understated.

We didn't record the cost of good sold thefore our gross profit is higher making the net income higher.

<u><em>When the inventory is understated</em></u> this means COGS is overstated.

We record more cost of goods sold thefore our gross profit is lower making the net income fewer as well.

7 0
3 years ago
Multinational Corporations (MNCs, sometimes called TNCs) are:
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

d. Non-state (non-governmental) actors, focused on profit

Explanation:

Non State actor can literally be defined as an organization that are not funded by the government.

Multinational Corporations (MNCs) and Transnational companies (TNCs) are organizations that have companies in several countries and are business oriented focused on making profit.

Therefore, Multinational Corporations (MNCs, sometimes called TNCs) are Non-state (non-governmental) actors, focused on profit

4 0
3 years ago
Suzanne, an HR specialist, is assessing training and development needs at
DaniilM [7]
In my opinion, we all have our own values and true colors so we can't judge and predict by only looking cover so we need time to make sure what kind of other stuffs need to fill up after her or his probation period. After that we should decide which is the best way and shouldn't terminate by just only watching cover of a new one during his or her probation period.
5 0
2 years ago
11. If you want to have a return for your Final Portfolio (that is invested between Optimal Risky portfolio and Risk Free Securi
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section.

Explanation:

Note: First of all, this question is incomplete and lacks necessary data to calculate this question. However, I have found the similar question on the internet with complete data given. Additionally, I have shared that data as well in the attachment below for your convenience, Thanks.

Solution:

SD = Standard Deviation

Using utility function, E(R) = Rp - 0.005 x A x SD^{2} = 1.34 - 0.005 x 3x 4.06^{2}

Using utility function, E(R) = 1.093%

If the weight in the risky portfolio is let's say, "a" then,

weight in the risk-free asset = 1 - a

So,

E(R) = a x Rp + (1 - a) x Rf

1.093% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.50%

Solving for "a"

a = 70.56% - weight in risky portfolio

and 1 - a = 29.44% - weight in risk-free asset.

Similarly, if you want a return of 1.10%,

we can follow the above steps and get

1.1% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.5%

Weight in risky portfolio,

a = 71.43%

weight in risk-free asset,

1 - a = 28.57%

5 0
2 years ago
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