Answer:
D (assuming f(x)=-3x^2+4x+6)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's find f(2) and f(3).
I'm going to make the assumption you meant f(x)=-3x^2+4x+6 (please correct if this is not the function you had).
f(2) means replace x with 2.
f(2)=-3(2)^2+4(2)+6
Use pemdas to simplify: -3(4)+4(2)+6=-12+8+6=-4+6=2.
So f(2)=2
f(3) means replace x with 3.
f(3)=-3(3)^2+4(3)+6
Use pemdas to simplify: -3(9)+4(3)+6=-27+12+6=-15+6=-9
So f(3)=-9
-9 is smaller than 2 is the same as saying f(3) is smaller than f(2) or that f(2) is bigger than f(3).
Answer:
29
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
? = (x + 7)
Step-by-step explanation:
2x^2 + 15x + 7 = (2x + 1) (?)
1. First you need to figure out what multiplied by 2x will give you 2x^2, which is x.
2. Then you need to find what would give you 15x. In this case because you have the 1 in (2x + 1), you already know that there is going to be an extra x. So, what times 2x gives you 14x? It's 7.
3. Lastly you need to make sure that 1 multiplied with 7 is equal to 7 and combine like terms.
4. Check: (2x + 1) (x + 7) =
2x^2 + 14x + 1x + 7 =
2x^2 + 15x + 7
12/5
when you’re dividing by a fraction, you multiply by its reciprocal. 2 / 5/6 is the same as 2*6/5. 2*6 is 12, so your answer is 12/5
Answer: 1/ 233856 chance changed to 233856 x 2 = 467712
= 1 / 467712 chance as there are 2 drawings
Workings;
1 and 65 = 64
1 and 65 - 1 ball drawn = 63
1 and 60 -1 = 58
1/64 x 1/63 x 1/58 = 233856
1/4032 x 1/58 and to make these the same we 4038/58 = 69.62
then convert properly = 1/4032 x 69.62/4032 4032 x 4032 = 69.62/16257024 then 16257024/69.62 =233510.83
= 233511 chance if rounding before
1/ (233511 x 2) = 1/467022
Then one part is our actual probability
P) = 1/233856
But as they specified a special drawing
you need to repeat this as 64 x 63 x 58 x 2 as the last one cannot be in 1 drawing it has to be in 2nd drawing
233856 x 2 = 467712
= 1 / 467712 chance not rounding down before hand.