Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
(7a^2 + 8b^2 + 5ab) (7a^2 + 8b^2 - 5ab)
Step-by-step explanation:
Dado que ambos términos son cuadrados perfectos, puede factorizar utilizando la fórmula de la diferencia de cuadrados, a^2 - b^ 2 = (a + b) (a - b), donde a = 7a^2 + 8b^2 y b = 5ab.
English: Since both terms are perfect squares you can factor using the difference of squares formula, a^2 - b^2 = (a + b)(a - b), where a = 7a^2 + 8b^2 and b = 5ab.
Answer:
1%
Step-by-step explanation:
We use the simple interest equation of A=P(1+rt).
A-the total amount with interest earned
P-the initial amount or principal
r-rate
t-time in years
We substitute the values P=6900, A=6923, and t=0.33 since 4 months divided by 12 months is 0.333 years. We then solve for r.
Our final step is to divide both sides by 0.33.
This is the decimal of the rate. We convert to a percentage by multiplying by 100. 0.01(100)=1%.
The 24 pack. The 6 pack would be 41 cents per unit, the 12 would be 33, but the 24 would be 22.
