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Bas_tet [7]
3 years ago
6

What is the conversion?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gelneren [198K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

  see below

Step-by-step explanation:

The conversion factor in the box is the product ...

  \dfrac{1\,\text{kPa}}{1000\,\text{Pa}}\cdot\left(\dfrac{1\,\text{m}}{100\,\text{cm}}\right)^3=10^{-9}\,\dfrac{\text{kPa m}^3}{\text{Pa cm}^3}

_____

The purpose of a conversion factor is to multiply by 1 in the form of a ratio that changes the units. We know that 1000 Pa = 1 kPa, so the ratio (1 kPa)/(1000 Pa) is the ratio of two equal quantities. It has the value 1 and will change units from Pa to kPa.

Likewise, 100 cm = 1 m, so (1 m)/(100 cm) will change the units from cm to m. However the given expression uses cm³, so we need to multiply by the conversion factor 3 times. That factor is ((1 m)/(100 cm))³ = (1 m³)/(10⁶ cm³).

To choose the appropriate conversion factor, look at the units you have (Pa, cm) and the units you want (kPa, m). Find the relationship these have to each other, and write the ratio so that it will cancel the units you have and leave the units you want.

When SI units are involved the prefixes help you out. k = kilo = 1000; c = centi = 1/100. It is worthwhile to get to know them.

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What is 37.09 in expanded form
Anit [1.1K]
Thirty-seven point nine hundredths hope this helps :))
8 0
3 years ago
What is the square of 8 step by step​
Marysya12 [62]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is a helpful method I taught my students in my mini lesson...

For you to remember, 22= 4, and 32= 9. Hence the answer to the root of 8 lies between the numbers 2 and 3. However, since the square of 3 equals to 9 which is larger than 8, the root 8 value lies in between the number 2.8 and 2.9.

7 0
3 years ago
For which function does f (-8) = f (8) ?
nignag [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Can you give me more information on the question, so i can make sure that i give you the correct answer . I think its A but not totally for sure

8 0
3 years ago
20 business cards are placed in a hat, 10 belong to women, 10 belong yo men If 2 cards are drawn at once. what's the probability
erik [133]

Answer:

First choice:

               \large\boxed{\large\boxed{5/19}}

Explanation:

<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards  in the hat has changed.

In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.

<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>

  • Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)

  • Number of man's card in the hat: 10

  • Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.

<u />

<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>

  • Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)

  • Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10

  • Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.

<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>

<u />

  • (1/2) × (10/19) = 5/19

That is the first choice.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cole ride his bike for 45 miles at a rate if 15 miles per hour. How long did it take him to ride in 40 miles? PLEASE HELP
tatiyna
15x=45
45/15 =3
X=3
45 miles in 3 hours

How long did it take for 40 miles?

15x=40
40/15 = 2.6666667

15 x 2= 30
15 x 2.5 = 37.5
15 x 2.6 = 39
15 x 2.7 = 40.5
1 hour equals 60 mins

Answer:
It took Cole about 2 hours and 6 mins to ride 40 miles.
5 0
3 years ago
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