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denis23 [38]
3 years ago
9

What does it mean to have an "absolute advantage” in production?

Business
1 answer:
Shalnov [3]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

In economics, the principle of absolute advantage refers to the ability of a party (an individual, or firm, or country) to produce a greater quantity of a good, product, or service than competitors, using the same amount of resources

(i.e :  India has an absolute advantage in operating call centers compared to the Philippines because of its low cost of labor and abundant labor force.)

Explanation:

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Tuller wants to start a commercial trucking business and also wants to form his own limited liability company (LLC). Tuller, as
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

d, all states, as no state requires at least two members to create an LLC

Explanation:

The requisite of two members to create an LLC was removed from all states in the USA. Now, all states allow a single-member LLC. Massachussets was the last one to eliminate that requisite in 2003.

Maybe this change in laws was because owners cheated on that requisite by placing as the two members (owners) a man and his wife, or a woman and her husband, or some other person (in direct relation with the owner) which was just placing the name but the company actually belonged to only one member.

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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3 years ago
Salespeople at Janie's Cookie Company want to draw the attention of their customers through blogs, Twitter, and LinkedIn, rather
Serga [27]

Answer:

D. Inbound Marketing

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When a company uses blogs and social media, to draw the customers through content. And this is called Inbound Marketing, a passive, subtle and digital way to market.

7 0
2 years ago
Show your work and explain in a full sentence how 4 2-6 is equivalent to 3 8-6.
klemol [59]

Answer:

4\frac{2}{6} = 3\frac{8}{6} = \frac{26}{6}

Explanation:

Given

4\frac{2}{6} and 3\frac{8}{6}

Required

Show that they are equivalent

To do this, we simply convert both fractions to either decimal or improper fraction

Using improper fraction

4\frac{2}{6} = \frac{6 * 4 + 2}{6}

4\frac{2}{6} = \frac{24 + 2}{6}

4\frac{2}{6} = \frac{26}{6}

3\frac{8}{6} = \frac{6 *3+8}{6}

3\frac{8}{6} = \frac{18+8}{6}

3\frac{8}{6} = \frac{26}{6}

After converting both to improper fraction, we have:

4\frac{2}{6} = 3\frac{8}{6} = \frac{26}{6}

<em>Hence, both are equivalent</em>

3 0
2 years ago
In a process costing​ system, A. ​work-in-process inventory employs one general ledger account with a subsidiary ledger. B. cost
Kay [80]

Answer:

I think it would be a for the answer

5 0
2 years ago
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