Answer:
B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.
C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.
There are certain characteristics
Option B
The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.
Option C.
As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.
For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.
Answer:
This has no effect on the period-end balance sheet.
Explanation:
A statement of the assets, liabilities, and capital of a business or other organization at a particular point in time, detailing the balance of income and expenditure over the preceding period.
According to the question asked the balanced sheet was prepared before the pay period came so this effect will not affect the balance sheet.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Profit function would be maximised.
Profit = Revenue - Cost
Let units of both goods be = A ,B
Revenue per unit good A = 100
Revenue per unit good B = 90
Variable Cost per unit good A = 30
Variable Cost per unit good B = 25
Profit Function = (100 - 30)A + (90 - 35)B
= 60A + 65B
{The function is right without including 'average fixed cost' part of 'total cost' in the function because : average fixed cost is a constant & constant figure doesn't effect optimisation (via differentiation , ∵ d (c) = 0)
Answer:
incremental after tax cash flow for 2011: $1,145,000
Explanation:
Additional revenue $2,500,000
Cash operating expenses ($700,000)
Depreciation and amortization expenses ($300,000)
<u>Reduced inventories ($200,000)</u>
Pretax income $1,300,000
<u>Less taxes 35% ($455,000)</u>
Net income $845,000
<u>Add Depreciation and amort. expenses $300,000</u>
Free cash flow $1,145,000
