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azamat
3 years ago
12

An investor believes that there will be a big jump in a stock price, but is uncertain as to the direction. Identify six differen

t strategies (spreads or combinations) the investor can follow and explain the differences among them.
Hint: You should also consider the inverse of a spread or combination that we have studied. For example, the inverse of a spread is called a reverse spread. Relative to a spread, the reverse spread involves 1) a short position where the spread would be a long position and 2) a long position where the spread would be a short position.
Business
1 answer:
Korvikt [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Consider the following explanation.

Explanation:

The six different strategies (spreads or combinations) the investor can follow:

1)short Butterfly spread: it’s a spread with selling one call option with the lowest strike price(XL),purchasing two call options with the medium strike price(XM) and  selling one call option with the highest strike price (XH) , XL<XM<XH. The strike price (XM) is generally chosen such that its equal to the stock price and options are of same maturity. The strategy shall generate the net income from the selling of calls when the stock price deviated from the strike price XM due to the high volatility. A high jump either way guarantees a net income.

2) The Straddle combination with long one put and long 1 call with the same strike price X and maturity. Its payoff depends on the deviation of the strike price if the big jump either way is expected then either the put or the call expires in the money so that the moneyness(payoffs) covers all the premiums paid for the call and put and there are profits. The high jump either way guarantees a big payoff from either the put or the call.

3)In the Strangle combination there is one long call with strike price (Xc) and one long put with strike price Xp,this combination is cheaper to generate due to purchase of OTM(out of the money) options. If the big jump either way is expected then either the put or the call expires in the money so that the moneyness (payoffs) covers all the premiums paid for the call and put and there are profits. The high jump either way guarantees a big payoff from either the put or the call. It’s easier to cover all the lesser premiums paid for the call and put and generate profits with a big move.

4) The Strip combination consists of 1 call+2 put with same exercise price and maturity. If the big jump either way is expected then either the two put or the call expires in the money so that the moneyness covers all the premiums paid for the call and put and there are profits. The payoff generated by the 2 puts is much more when the stock moves downwards as compared to when the stock moves upwards. Investor is sure of the uncertain directional big jump but thinks that the probability of downward move is greater than the upward move.

5) The Strap combination consists of 2 calls+1 put with same exercise price and maturity. If the big jump either way is expected then either the 1 put or the 2 calls expires in the money so that the moneyness covers all the premiums paid for the call and put and there are profits. The payoff generated by the 2 calls is much more when the stock moves upwards as compared to when the stock moves downwards. Investor is sure of the uncertain directional big jump but thinks that the probability of upward move is greater than the downward move.

6) Short Calendar spread: short shorter term call and at the same time short longer term call therefore the income is generated by the big move from the premiums of the calls and differences in the maturity.

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Wisconsin Company collected $42,000 cash on its accounts receivable. The effects of this transaction are: Multiple Choice Both t
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Answer:

Option Total assets, total liabilities, and equity are unchanged.

Explanation:

The reason is that the double entry to record this transaction is as under:

Dr Cash Account       $42,000

Cr Accounts Receivable $42,000

Hence there increase in one asset and decrease in other asset will have zero net impact on assets. As equity and liabilities are not effected by the transaction, hence they will also remain unchanged.

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3 years ago
Why are social security and medicare considered highly efficient programs? multiple choice they are administered at the local le
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3 years ago
Here are data on two stocks, both of which have discount rates of 8%: Stock A Stock B Return on equity 8 % 5 % Earnings per shar
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Answer:

Please sew solution below

Explanation:

a. What are the dividend payout ratios for each firm

Dividend payout ratio = Dividend / EPS

• Payout ratio stock A = $1.30 / $2.6 = 0.5= 50%

• Payout ratio stock B = $1.3 / $1.8 = 0.72222 = 72.22%

b. What are the expected dividend growth rates for each stock.

Growth rate = ROE × (1 - dividend payout ratio)

•Growth rate stock A = 0.08 × (1 - 50%) = 0.04 = 4%

• Growth rate stock B = 0.05 × (1 - 72.22%) = 0.01389 = 1.39%

c. What is the proper stock price for each firm

• Stock A

Price = D1 / (Re - g)

D1= $1.30 * (1 + 0.04)

= 1.352

Stock B

Price = D1 / (Re - g)

D1= $1.30 * (1 + 0.013)

= 1.3169

Therefore,

• Stock A's proper price = $1.352 / (0.08 - 0.04) = $33.8

• Stock B's proper price = $1.3169 / ($0.08 - $0.013) = $19.66

6 0
3 years ago
Your buddy in mechanical engineering has invented a money machine. The main drawback of the machine is that it is slow. It takes
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Based on the amount it would cost to build the machine and the interest rate as well as the payoff, the following are true:

  • A. $333
  • B. $667

a. The machine will take a year to build which means the payoff will only start coming in next year.

First find the present value of the perpetuity:

= 70 / 5%

= $1,400

You then need to find the present value of the above in the current period:

= 1,400 / ( 1 + 5%)

= $1,333

NPV is:

= 1,333 - 1,000 cost

= $333

B. If the amount produced increases by 1%, you should use the Gordon Growth Model:

<em>= Next payoff / ( Interest - Growth)</em>

=70/ ( 5% - 1%)

= $1,750

Take this to current year:

= 1,750 / 1.05

= $1,667

NPV will be:

= 1,667 - 1,000

= $667

Find out more about NPV at brainly.com/question/7254007.

3 0
2 years ago
Truman Co. sells a large number of common household items, while Stapleton sells a small number of expensive items. The two comp
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Answer:

Truman has a higher inventory turnover ratio and Stapleton has a higher gross profit ratio ( D )

Explanation:

Truman sell a large number of common household items ( assuming 100 unit )

while Stapleton sells a small number of expensive items ( assuming 20 units )

lets assume : Truman sells at $5 per unit and Stapleton sells at $50 per unit

with the above assumptions

Truman gross profit ratio = $5 * 100 units = $500

Stapleton gross profit ratio = $50 * 20 units = $1000

from the above assumptions you can deduce that the gross profit made by Stapleton is higher although he sells a smaller amount of goods while Truman has a higher Turnover because of its higher number of sold units

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