Answer:
<h2>1) The answer is option a) or True.</h2><h2>2) Generally all contracts are assumed to be <u>Shipment </u> contracts if nothing to the contrary is stated in the contract.</h2><h2>3) The seller is required to deliver the goods to a particular destination in a destination contract,usually directly to the <u>buyer</u>
<u>.</u></h2><h2>4) The answer is option a) or True.</h2><h2 />
Explanation:
- A shipment contract mandates that the seller of any good or service is obligated to deliver the specified shipment to a common carrier for delivery to the buyer but not directly to the buyer's destination.Under the shipment contracts,the seller is not responsible for the condition of the shipment or package during the delivery point and time to the buyer.
- If nothing is specifically mentioned in the contract regarding the delivery of the shipment,it assumably qualifies as a shipment contract and the seller is only liable to dispatch the shipment to the transportation carrier and not obligated to send it directly to the buyer's destination.
- Under a destination contract,the seller is officially obligated to dispatch the concerned goods or shipment directly to the buyer's actual destination.Hence,the seller's obligation is incomplete until the shipment subsequently reaches the buyer's destination.
- For destination contract,at the point of delivery,the burden of risk and title associated with the condition and ownership of the specified shipment is passed onto the buyer and seller is not officially or legally liable regarding the same.
Answer:
d. The stock price is expected to be $54 a share one year from now.
Explanation:
Using dividend discount model(DDM), find next year's dividend;
P0 = D1/ (r-g)
50 = D1/(0.14-0.08)
50 = D1/ 0.06
Multiply both sides by 0.06 to solve for D1;
50 *0.06 = D1
3 = D1
Next, year's dividend is $3
Dividend yield = D1/P0;
= 3/ 50 = 0.06 or 6% hence choices A& B are incorrect.
Next year's price; P1 = P0(1+g)
P1 = 50(1.08) = $54 hence choice D is correct
Answer:
the Bad debt Expense for the Year is $250
Explanation:
The computation of the bad debt expense is given below:
Bad debt Expense for the Year is
= Current year of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts + Write off in Current Year - Prior year of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
= $400 + $200 - $350
= $250
Hence, the Bad debt Expense for the Year is $250
Answer:
Option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
(a) Net Income:
= Revenues - Expenses
= $77,000 - $48,600
= $ 28,400
(b) Retained earnings :
= Net Income - Dividend
= $ 28,400 - $7,700
= $20,700
(c) Stockholders' Equity:
= Total assets - Total Liabilities
= 185,000 - $105,000
= $80,000
Therefore, the retained earnings at December 31, 2016 were $20,700.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": A moderately favorable situation in which Sharon’s relationships with her employees are strained, but where the employees are still doing highly structured tasks.
Explanation:
Austrian organizational psychologist Fred Fiedler (<em>1922-2017</em>) proposed in his Theory of Contingency that leaders only have one leadership style and that they cannot shape it according to the different situations they might be involved in. Instead, leaders must be located in a situation that matches their style.
Since Sharon's leadership style is <em>autocratic</em>, she is likely to manage herself better in adverse situations where the subordinates still follow her instructions.
