Answer:
36% probability that she will find an acceptable house in the first two weeks that she looks.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each house, there is a 20% probability of it being acceptable. And a 100-20 = 80% of not being acceptable
What is the probability that she will find an acceptable house in the first two weeks that she looks (round off to second decimal place)?
She only looks one house a week.
So this is the same as the probability of taking two or less weeks to find a house.
The are two outcomes
Finding an acceptable house in the first week, with 20% probability
Not finding an acceptable house in the first week, with 80% probability, and then finding an acceptable house in the second week, with 20% probability.
Probability:
36% probability that she will find an acceptable house in the first two weeks that she looks.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
my bad its
34x3c3x
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
Answer:
314.16
Step-by-step explanation:
pi times radius squared is your formula, so plug it into your calculator just like that. 10^2*pi
Answer:
1. 193.2 in³
4. 628.32 ft³
Step-by-step explanation:
For the rectangular prism, just find the area of each individual side and add. For the cylinder, just do πr²×h, with r being the radius and h being the height.
