This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
Marginal productivity theory assumes that a worker’s income is a function of the contribution of that worker to the value of the output. in business, this is called the "value-added" approach.
There is a correct theory called marginal productivity theory. Wages are paid at a level equal to the marginal revenue product of labor, the MRP (value of the marginal product of labor). MRP is the increase in income caused by the increase in output produced by the last employed worker.
The marginal productivity theory of income distribution proposes that each individual should receive income based on their contribution to total output. The marginal productivity theory of income distribution has been criticized for the following reasons. Income from inheritance is inconsistent with the theory.
Learn more about Marginal revenue here: brainly.com/question/13617399
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Answer:
Quantitative
Explanation:
The reason is that a good research report includes qualitative and quantitative research. Qualitative research is non numerical data and it give information which helps in meaning making whereas the quantitative research is a research in which the researcher tries to find the numerical relation using quantifiable data, which is investigated through number of means which includes use of mathematics, principles, etc techniques to extract data. So the qualitative research is done here and the only thing the company requires is quantitative data.
Answer:
B. Rescission and Restitution
Explanation:
