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Maslowich
3 years ago
12

Benson and Orton are partners who share income in the ratio of 2:3 and have capital balances of $60,000 and $40,000, respectivel

y. Ramsey is admitted to the partnership and is given a 40% interest by investing $20,000. What is Benson’s capital balance after admitting Ramsey?
Business
1 answer:
hjlf3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$48,800

Explanation:

Ratio = 2:3

Total investment:

= Benson capital + Orton capital + Ramsey capital

= $60,000 + $40,000 + $20,000

= $120,000

Total Equity of Ramsey:

= 40% of  Total investment

= 0.4 × $120,000

= $48,000

Old partners contribution:

= Equity of Ramsey - Ramsey capital

= $48,000 - $20,000

= $28,000

Benson’s capital balance after admitting Ramsey:

= Benson’s capital - Old partners contribution(2 ÷ 5)

= $60,000 - [$28,000 × (2 ÷ 5)]

= $60,000 - $11,200

= $48,800

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In February 2017 the risk-free rate was 4.97 percent, the market risk premium was 7 percent, and the beta for Twitter stock was
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

14.77%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 4.97% + 1.40 × 7%

= 4.97% + 9.8%

= 14.77%

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also called market risk premium and the same is shown in the answer

5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2005 Franz Company purchased a truck that cost $22,000. The truck had an expected useful life of 5 years and a $4,
allochka39001 [22]

Answer: The amount of depreciation expense recognized in 2006, using the double declining balance method is $5,280.

And the journal entries required are:

Debit Depreciation expense                     $5,280

Credit Accumulated depreciation             $5,280

Explanation: The double-declining method is otherwise known as reducing balance method. It is usually derived by using the formula below:

Double-declining depreciation = 2 X SLDP X BV

Where SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

           BV = Book value of the asset (Cost minus depreciation)

So using the straight-line depreciation method, we need to remove the salvage value from the cost and then divided by 5 years. That is, ($22,000 - $4,000) / 5 years = $3,060 yearly depreciation expense.

However, under the double-declining method, we need to divide the 100% by the useful life of the asset first to get the SLDP then multiply by 2, that is, 100%/5 years = 20% x 2 = 40%.

So 40% x $22,000 in year 1 (December 31, 2005) is $8,800

In year 2 (December 31, 2006), 40% x $13,200 ($22,000 - $8,800) = $5,280 and so on. The depreciation expense would stop immediately it falls below the salvage value of $4,000.

So the book value of the asset at the end of year 2 is $7,920 ($13,200 - $4,000 accumulated depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a family spends its entire budget in a given time frame, the family can afford either 80 cans of beans or 35 frozen pizzas. A
Fofino [41]

Answer:

7/16

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the cost of the alternative forgone. It is also called the real cost. It is a concept in economics developed due to the fact that wants are unlimited but the resources available to meet the wants are limited. Hence a scale of preference would be drawn up for the wants in order of importance.

If the family can afford either 80 cans of beans or 35 frozen pizzas, the cost of a can of beans in terms of frozen pizza is 35/80 frozen pizza while the cost of a unit of frozen pizza in terms of beans is 80/35.

As such, the opportunity cost of one can of beans in terms of frozen pizza is 35/80 which is 7/16 in the lowest term

6 0
3 years ago
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Jet001 [13]
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Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

B. work motivation is a function of a wide variety of factors,Including pay,social relationships,meaning interests, and attitudes

3 0
2 years ago
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